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Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-310
Set up and configure financial management (35-40%)
Manage and apply common processes (20-25%)
Implement and manage accounts payable and receivable (20-25%)
QUESTION 1 A client has one legal entity and the following four dimensions configured: Business Unit, Cost Center, Department, and Division. You need to configure the client\\’s system to run the trial balance inquiry in the General ledger module so that it displays the trial balance in two ways: Include the main account and all four dimensions. Include the main account and only the business unit and cost center dimensions. What should you configure? A. two account structures B. two derived financial dimension hierarchies C. all financial dimensions by using the group dimension functionality D. two financial dimension sets Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A company needs to create budget plan templates for its budgeting process. You need to create the budget plan templates. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 You are configuring budgeting components in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to configure multiple budgets. What are three budgeting options you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Cost management budget, including Production and Resource groups B. Sales budget, including Campaigns and Events C. Workforce budget, including Compensation groups and Positions D. Project budget, including Items and Fees E. Ledger budget, including Revenue and Expense types Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6 You create a financial dimension set named MA + DEPT + PROJ as shown in the following screenshot. The financial dimension set includes the following dimensions: Main Account Department Project
Use the drop-down menu to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 An organization uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Several posted journal entries contain invalid main account and dimension combinations. This leads to incorrect financial reporting. You need to prevent these invalid combinations. What should you do? A. Configure the account structure to specify which financial dimensions are valid for which main accounts. B. Train users to select the Validate button in the current journal configuration so that the correct account and dimension combination is used. C. Configure financial dimension sets to limit which financial dimensions are valid for which main accounts. D. Associate the correct main accounts to that financial dimension on the financial dimension setup form. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/configureaccount-structures
QUESTION 8 A client is implementing Accounts payable. The client wants to establish three-way matching for 100 of their 5,000 stocked items from a specific vendor. The client requires the ability to have items that require only two-way matching and specific items that require three-way matching. You need to configure the system in the most efficient manner to achieve these requirements. What should you do? A. Configure a company matching policy of a three-way match B. Configure a company matching policy of non-required and specify the items that require a three-way match C. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and set the matching policy for specific item and vendor combination level to three-way matching D. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the items that require a three-way match E. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the vendors that require a three-way match Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/accounts-payable/tasks/set-upaccounts-payable-invoice-matching-validation
QUESTION 9 You are asked to configure foreign currency revaluation in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You are viewing the main accounts.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 A client plans to use Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for year-end 1099 reporting in the United States. You are viewing a vendor master data record on the 1099 FastTab.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You are configuring vendor collaboration security roles for external vendors. You manually set up a vendor contact. You need to assign the Vendor (external) role to this vendor. Which tasks can this vendor perform? A. Add a new or existing contact person to the vendor accounts that they are a contact for B. View consignment inventory C. Request a new user account for a contact person by using the Provision user action D. View and modify contact person information, such as the person\\’s title, email address, and telephone number Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/procurement/set-upmaintain-vendor-collaboration
QUESTION 12 A client uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for accounts receivable. You need to configure the method of payment to enforce the accounts receivable clerk to enter the wire number for the received electronic payment. Which item should you set up as mandatory? A. Select bank transaction type B. Select payment reference C. Select Payment ID D. Select Deposit slip Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A client observes that some customers are late paying their invoices. The client wants to use the Credit and Collections functionality to send collection letters to customers. You need to configure the system to support collection letter functionality and processing. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the HyperV server role installed and are part of a host group named Groupl in Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Server1 and Server2 have identical hardware, software, and settings. You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on a host exceeds 65 percent. The current load on the servers is shown following table.
You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VMS. VMS has a CPU utilization of 20 percent. You discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. What should you modify from the Dynamic Optimization configuration? A. The Host Reserve threshold B. The Power Optimization threshold C. The Aggressiveness level D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 HyperV hosts in a failover cluster. The HyperV hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs). You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements: The virtual machines must support live migration. The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers. Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) B. An NFS share C. Storage pools D. SMB 3.0 shares Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 Your network contains two data centers named DataCenterl and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a lowlatency highspeed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple HyperV hosts that run Windows Server 20l2. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the HyperV hosts. You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements: Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single HyperV host fails. Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend? A. One failover cluster in DataCenterl and HyperV replicas to DataCenter2 B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenterl C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You have a HyperV host named Hyperl that has Windows Server 20l2 installed. Hyperl hosts 20 virtual machines. HyperV has one physical network adapter. You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyperl to all of the virtual machines. What should you modify? A. The settings of the virtual switch B. The settings of the virtual network adapter C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter D. The settings of the legacy network adapter Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Your network contains a HyperV cluster named Clusterl. You install Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You create a user account for another administrator named Userl. You plan to provide Userl with the ability to manage only the virtual machines that Userl creates. You need to identify what must be created before you delegate the required permissions. What should you identify? A. A service template B. A Delegated Administrator C. A cloud D. A host group Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a second System Center 20l2 infrastructure in a test environment. You create a service template named Templatel in both System Center 20l2 infrastructures. For selfservice users, you create a service offering for Templatel. The users create 20 instances of Templatel. You modify Templatel in the test environment. You export the service template to a file named Templatel.xml. You need to ensure that the changes to Templatel can be applied to the existing instances in the production environment. What should you do when you import the template? A. Overwrite the current service template. B. Change the name of the service template. C. Create a new service template. D. Change the release number of the service template. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
Serverl uses the storage shown in the following table.
You perform the following tasks: On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B. On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clusl. On Clusl, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B. You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Serverl. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files. You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files. Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)? A. \\Server3\Share3 B. \\Server2\Share2B C. \\Clusl\Share5B D. \\Server4\Share4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The network contains a System Center 20l2 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment. The domain contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You install System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2. You configure VMM to use a database in Clusterl. Server5 is the first node in the cluster. You need to back up the VMM encryption key. What should you back up? A. A full system backup of Server1 B. A full system backup of Server3 C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5 D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Serverl Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. The cluster has Dynamic Optimization enabled. You deploy three highly available virtual machines to the cluster by using System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to prevent Dynamic Optimization from placing any of the three virtual machines in the same node. What should you do? A. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Compati ility settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. B. Set the Priority property of the virtual machine cluster role. C. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Servicing Windows settings of the virtual machines. D. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Availability settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Webl and Web2. Webl and Web2 run Windows Server 20l2. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Webl and Web2. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation. What should you recommend? A. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet. B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server. C. Remove both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. D. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create two new alias (CNAME) records named Intranet. Map each CNAME record to a Web server name. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Your company has a main office and a branch office. You plan to implement a failover cluster named Clusterl to host an application named Appl. The data of Appl will replicate to all of the nodes in Clusterl. Clusterl will contain two servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table
The cluster nodes will not use shared storage. The branch office contains two file servers named Server3 and Server4. You need to ensure that Appl fails over automatically to another server if a single node in Clusterl fails. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Add Server3 as a node in Clusterl. B. Add Serverl, Server2, and Server3 to a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. C. Add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Cluster2. Install Appl on Cluster2. D. Add Server3 as a file share witness for Clusterl. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office. You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements: Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office. Minimizes data loss. What should you include in the plan? A. HyperV replicas B. Live migration C. Virtual machine checkpoints D. System state restores Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 20l2 or Windows Server 200S R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 200S R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 200S. The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle Bin. You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy. Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 200S R2. B. Run the EnableADOptionalFeature cmdlet. C. Run the NewADObject cmdlet. D. Run the SetServer cmdletE. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 20l2. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14 Your network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 7 and a custom application named Appl. Appl uses data stored in a shared folder. You have a failover cluster named Clusterl that contains two servers named Serverl and Server2. Serverl and Server2 run Windows Server 20l2 and are connected to an iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN). You plan to move the shared folder to Clusterl. You need to recommend which cluster resource must be created to ensure that the shared folder can be accessed from Clusterl. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. The Generic Application cluster role B. The DFS Namespace Server cluster role C. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for general use type D. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for scaleout application data type Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), you modify the properties of the service template. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Service Level Tracking object. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Monitor Override. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the User certificate template, and then you modify the extensions of the copy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the Basic EFS template, you assign the Allow Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the Basic EFS certificate template, and then you modify the validity period of the copy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Your network contains multiple servers that run Windows Server 2012. You plan to implement three virtual disks. The virtual disks will be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify the minimum number of physical disks required for each virtual disk. How many disks should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate number of disks to the correct virtual disk in the answer area. Each number of disks may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additi nally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 27 Your company has four offices. The offices are located in Montreal, Seattle, New York, and Miami. Users access all of the web-based resources by using web proxy servers. The IP addresses of the web proxies at each office are configured as shown in the following table.
The connections to the web proxies are balanced by using round－robin DNS. The company plans to deploy a new application. The new application has a farm of front－end web servers that connect to a back－end application server. When a session to a web server is established, the web server stores data until the session closes. Once the session closes, the data is sent to the application server. You need to ensure that the incoming sessions to the web server farm are distributed among the web servers. The solution must ensure that if a web server fails, the users are NOT directed to the failed server. How should you configure the port rule? To answer, select the appropriate opti ns in the answer area
QUESTION 28 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster named Clusterl that contains four nodes. Clusterl hosts a web application named App1. The session state information of App1 is stored in a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The network contains four subnets. You discover that all of the users from a subnet named Subnetl always connect to the same NLB node. You need to ensure that all of the users from each of the subnets connect equally across all of the nodes in Clusterl. What should you modify from the port settings? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
QUESTION 29 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. The domain contains a server named Serverl. Server1 is a certification authority (CA). All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to deploy BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) to all client computers. The unique identifier for your organization is set to Contoso. You need to ensure that you can recover the BitLocker encrypted data by using a BitLocker data recovery agent. You must be able to perform the recovery from any administrative computer. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 30 You plan to deploy a certification authority (CA) infrastructure that contains the following servers: An offiine standalone root CA named CA1 An enterprise subordinate CA named CA2 On all of the computers, you import the root CA certificate from CA1 to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities Certificates store. You need to ensure that CA2 can issue certificates for the CA hierarchy. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
QUESTION 31 Your network contains five physical servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 32 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) is deployed to the domain. In VMM, you create a host group named HostGroupl. You add a l6－node Hyper－V failover cluster to HostGroupl. From Windows PowerShell, you run the following commands:
Use the drop－down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
QUESTION 33 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple servers that are configured as Hyper－V hosts. You plan to implement four virtual machines. The virtual machines will be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which network must be added to each virtual machine. Which network types should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate Network Type to the correct virtual machine in the answer area. Each Network Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additi nally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 34 You are planning to set up a proof-of-concept network virtualization environment. The environment will contain three servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 35 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Serverl and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are members of a failover cluster. The network contains a Storage Area Network (SAN) that has a LUN named LUN1. LUN1 is connected to a 12-TB disk on the SAN. You plan to host three new virtual machines on the failover cluster. Each virtual machine will store up to 4 TB of data on a single disk. The virtual machines will be backed up from the hosts by using the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS). You need to ensure that Server1 and Server2 can store the new virtual machines on the SAN. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 36 You have a System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) deployment. You implement Hyper-V Recovery Manager for the deployment. You create two new clouds named Cloudl and Cloud2. Metadata for both clouds is uploaded to Windows Azure. You need to ensure that the virtual machines in Cloud1 are protected by using replicas in Cloud2. Where should you perform each action? To answer, select the appropriate tool for each action in the answer area
QUESTION 37 You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains four Hyper-V hosts. Cluster1 hosts 20 virtual machines. You deploy a new failover cluster named Cluster2. You plan to replicate the virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2. You need to recommend which actions must be performed on Cluster2 for the planned deployment. Which three actions should you recommend? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 38 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3 and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are configured as file servers and are part of a failover cluster named Cluster1. Server3 and Server4 have Microsoft SQL Server 2012 installed and are part of a failover cluster named Cluster2. You add a disk named Disk1 to the nodes in Cluster1. Disk1 will be used to store the data files and log files used by SQL Server 2012. You need to configure the environment so that access to Disk1 remains available when a node on Cluster1 fails over or fails back. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 39 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Serverl has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed and is configured to have five iSCSI virtual disks. You install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature on Server2. From the MPIO snap-in, you add support for iSCSI devices. You need to ensure that Server2 can connect to the five iSCSI disks. The solution must ensure that Server2 uses MPIO to access the disks. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 40 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You prepare the forest to support Workplace Join and you enable the Device Registration Service (DRS) on Server1. You need to ensure that Workplace Join meets the following requirements: Application access must be based on device claims. Users who attempt to join their device to the workplace through Server2 must be prevented from locking out their Acti Directory account due to invalid credenti ls. Which cmdlet should you run to achieve each requirement? To answer, select the cmdlet for each requirement in the answer area.
QUESTION 41 You use the entire System Center suite. You integrate Service Manager with Operations Manager, Virtual Machine Manager, Orchestrator, and Active Directory. You perform all remediation by using Orchestrator runbooks. An application experiences performance problems on a periodic basis. You have the following requirements: A new incident must be opened when System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) detects a performance problem. The incident must be closed when the performance problem is resolved. The incident must be associated with the HR performance problem in Service Manager. You need to configure the environment.
QUESTION 42 You are planning to set up a proof-of-concept network virtualization environment. The environment will contain three servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
VMM will be used to manage the virtualization environment. Server2 runs three virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to use network virtualization. You need to enable network connectivity between the virtual machines and Server3. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 43 You need to ensure that all new production Hyper－V virtual machines can be deployed correctly. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
QUESTION 44 You need to configure the environment to support App1. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 45 You need to create a script to deploy DFS replication. Which Windows PowerShell commands should you add to the script? To answer, select the appropriate Windows PowerShell commands in each list in the answer area.
QUESTION 46 You plan to delegate the management of virtual machines to five groups by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The network contains 20 Hyper-V hosts in a host group named HostGroup1. You identify the requirements for each group as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which user role must be assigned to each group. Which user roles should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate user role to the correct group in the answer area. Each user role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 47 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.You publish the certificate revocation list (CRL) to a farm of Web servers. You are creating a disaster recovery plan for the AD CS infrastructure. You need to recommend which actions must be performed to restore certificate revocation checking if a certification authority (CA) is offiine for an extended period of time. Which three actions should you recommend? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 48 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed. You plan to create two virtual machines that will run an application named App1. Appl will store data on a virtual hard drive named Appldata.vhdx. Appldata.vhdx will be shared by both virtual machines. The network contains the following shared folders: An SMB file share named Share1 that is hosted on a Scale-Out File Server. An SMB file share named Share2 that is hosted on a standalone file server. An NFS share named Share3 that is hosted on a standalone file server. You need to ensure that both virtual machines can use Appldata.vhdx simultaneously. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area.
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The best Microsoft 70-417 exam practice questions and answers MCSA Windows Server 2012 test in their very first attempts. Our success rates in the past two years have been absolutely impressive, thanks to 70-417 exam our happy customers who are now able to propel their careers in the fast lane.
QUESTION 1
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the syntax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /feature name:Server- Gui- Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QUESTION 2 70-417 exam
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the following storage spaces:
*Data
*Users
*Backups
*Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space.
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. 70-417 exam
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the set parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart, click in the Start Search box, type services.MSC, and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-click services, select export List, and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then click properties.
4. On the General tab, Startup type, click Automatic, Manual, Disabled, or automatic (Delayed Start).
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click the Log On tab, and then do one of the following.
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using the Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.PSL script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the 70-417 exam following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy – ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
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QUESTION 34.You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has
mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external
domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for
each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information
only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list. 070-347 exam Answer: D, F
QUESTION 35.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000
people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will
take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the
employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the
migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in
plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only Answer: C QUESTION 36.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email
messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language
content and IP addresses of the country or region of origin.
Which filters and options should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate 070-347 dumps answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 37
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the
same scrambling code group.
070-347 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 39
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic
power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB. C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D QUESTION 40
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450
for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
070-347 vce Answer: D QUESTION 41
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D QUESTION 42
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLDCH, it
retransmits the message RRCConnectionReleaseComplete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the
idle mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
070-347 vce Answer: A QUESTION 43
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink
throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64,
0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76. B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D QUESTION 44
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE
should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
070-347 exam Answer: D QUESTION 45
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours
the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C QUESTION 46
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging
information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B.by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn’t know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality. 070-347 dumps Answer: C QUESTION 47
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data. Answer: B QUESTION 48
The WCDMA – GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
070-347 pdf Answer: A QUESTION 49
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
Answer: D QUESTION 50
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is
under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
070-347 vce Answer: A QUESTION 51
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent
AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C.URA-PCH state.
D.CELLFACH state. QUESTION 52
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2
kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many
sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area
of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
070-347 exam Answer: D QUESTION 53
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B QUESTION 54
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the
outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A QUESTION 55
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies. 070-347 dumps Answer: B QUESTION 56
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM
possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C QUESTION 57
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
070-347 pdf Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer: QUESTION 59
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
070-347 vce Answer: C QUESTION 60
What is a typical value (in dB) of the “PtxPrimaryCPICH” parameter (this parameter
determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC
WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100 Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which applications can be created on Webex Teams developer portal? A. Adapters and AppTies B. Java and Python programs C. Pages and Snapins D. Integrations and Bots Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid? A. CCW order B. Customer Smart Account C. Product Access Key (PAK) D. Holding Account Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid? A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan. B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased. C. SWSS is only for data center customers. D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners? A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders B. quote and order resale product only C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers D. ordering tool for Distributors only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter? A. Webex Edge Connect B. An Apple iPad C. Room Kit Plus Connector D. Cisco Meeting Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which Webex Edge service uses +E.164 numbers? A. Webex Edge does not support +E.164 numbers B. Webex Edge Audio C. Webex Edge Video Mesh D. Webex Edge Management Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which action for Cisco Proximity is valid? A. Pair to a nearby Cisco room device and wirelessly share content to the meeting B. Determine which attendee would be the most effective presenter based on latency C. Pair to the room lightning system through infrared D. Locate the attendees based on network IP address Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan? A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams B. Meetings with Teams C. Video conferencing only D. Calling with Teams Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers? A. Salesforce and Sales Connect B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which statement best describes Webex Edge Audio? A. Webex Edge Audio uses the existing Cisco UCM and Expressway products to pass the audio traffic over the Internet to the Webex meeting. B. Webex Edge Audio only works with ISDN lines. C. Webex Edge Audio requires Webex Edge Video Mesh to function correctly. D. Webex Audio is limited to 10 participants. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Who defines the Webex Teams retention policy? A. Each user defines their own retention policy B. Each customer defines its own retention policy C. Local governments define retention policy D. Cisco defines the retention policy Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages? A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations. B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications. C. Yes, only if everyone agrees. D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which statement about Development on the Webex platform is valid? A. only available for customer organizations B. pay per use C. Webex does not support developers D. free for everyone Correct Answer: B
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Exam By:Cisco Exam Code:400-101 Exam Name:CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam Related Certification(s):CCIE Routing & Switching
Maybe you are also interested in other Cisco exams.
Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.
Please see the exams for the process I listed below.
See! Step 1. Learn what you need to know.
How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 13%
Layer 3 Technologies 37%
VPN Technologies 13%
Infrastructure Security 5%
Infrastructure Services 12%
Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%
This is the first place I learned when I was learning the CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam network. The targets displayed in the screenshot are divided into sub-goals. Each subgoal has a set of skills listed in paragraphs.
This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.
See! Step 2. Find good study materials
You need very good learning materials.As a Cisco Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience.
Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.
Publisher Learning Guide
If you don’t have the ability to take an official Cisco course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.
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See! Step 3. Take notes
I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.
See! Step 4. Practice
Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.
See! Step 5. Manage exam time
When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.
If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.
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2019 Latest Cisco 400-101 Actual Free Exam Questions
QUESTION 1 Which two options about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two) A. In a PIM-DM network, routers that have no upstream neighbors prune back unwanted traffic B. PIM-DM initially floods multicast traffic throughout the network. C. PIM-DM supports only shared trees. D. PIM-DM uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic. E. PIM-DM cannot be used to build a shared distribution tree. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Refer to exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true? A. The Reported distance for the Successor is 128256 B. The metric installed into the route tabel is 4352 C. The metric installed into the route table is 126256 D. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the summary disappears? A. Regardless of the metric of the component route ,the metric of the summary is unchanged in order to keep stability B. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary metric is retained for stability / C. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the summary changes to the next-best composite metric D. If the component route previously dis not have the best composite metric, the summary metric is updated and updates are sent to peers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two commands should you enter to enable IP Source Guard with source IP and MAC address filtering? (Choose two) A. ip verify source tracking B. switchport port-security C. ip verify unicast source D. ip verify source E. ip verify source port-security Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 What is the correct multicast destination address for IGMPV2 leave-group messages? A. 224.0.0.2 B. 239.0.0.2 C. 224.0.0.1 D. 239.0.0.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What does the dis on a lan periodically transrnit to ensure that the IS-IS link-state database is accurate? A. IIH B. Csnp C. ISH D. LIP E. PSNPCCIERS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 How can you protect a device from Dos attacksdirected against its terminal and management ports? A. Enable AAA local authentication on the terminal and management ports B. Configure TCP keepalives on the terminal and management ports C. Reserve a terminal or management port with a highly restrictive ACL D. Configure the max-login-attempts command on the terminal and management ports Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which information is contained in an OSPF type7 not-so-stybby area NSSA extemal LSA? A. The paths and costs to reach other stub area border routers in the ospf routing domain. B. The external network address mask and cost to reach networks that are extemal to the OSPF NSSA including the default route. C. The address of routers that connect the current area to other areas and the cost to reach those routersCCIERS. D. Extemal net work address ,mask,and cost to reach each nework that is external to the ospf domain and only within the NSSA. E. The paths and costs to all OSPF NSSA areas that are external to the current area. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 How is the MRU for a multilink bundle determined? A. It is negotiated by LCP. B. It is manually configured on the multilink bundle. C. It is manually configured on all physical interfaces of a multilink bundle. D. It is negotiated by NCP. E. It is negotiated by IPCP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two) A. VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices. B. VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets. C. VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port. D. VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region. E. Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2 Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12 Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two) A. cluster list B. local preference C. AS path D. MED E. weight Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13 Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two) A. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment B. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications D. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane E. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS Correct Answer: AE
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Question No: 1
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimmer and dimDistrict dimension tables and the fact sales fact table. The dimmer table contains records for 70-463 dumps each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimmer table.
B. Partition the fact sales table on the district column.
C. Create a user district table that contains primary key columns from the dimmer and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the fact sales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C
Question No: 2
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project has been deployed to the SSIS catalog.
The project includes a project Connection Manager to connect to the data warehouse.
The SSIS catalog includes two Environments:
Development
QA
Each Environment defines a single Environment Variable named ConnectionString of type string. The value of each variable consists of the connection string to the development or QA data warehouses.
You need to be able to execute deployed packages by using either of the defined Environments.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 070-463 dumps
Answer:
Question No : 3
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Answer: A
Question No: 4
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Answer: C
Question No: 5
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
The log archival must be automated. 70-463 dumps
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an MSI file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flows to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dump error /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164
Question No : 18You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use? A. HOLDLOCK B. ROWLOCK C. XLOCK D. UPDLOCK E. TABLOCK Answer: E Question No : 19You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You write the following Transact-SQL query:
You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do? A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query. B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader. C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query. D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables. Answer: D Explanation: Question No : 20Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use? A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()) B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE() C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112) D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())) Answer: D Explanation: Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer: You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables. Question No : 21 Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do? A. Use the CAST function. B. Use the DATE data type. C. Use the FORMAT function. D. Use an appropriate collation. E. Use a user-defined table type. F. Use the VARBINARY data type. G. Use the DATETIME data type. H. Use the DATETIME2 data type. I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type. J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function. Answer: F
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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230
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QUESTION 16 Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17 Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19 Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 20 What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery 070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21 A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections? A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1 70-463 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23 What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24 From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning 070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum teamwork?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node? A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow 070-463 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode Answer: C QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture Answer: D QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture 070-463 vce Answer: A QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow Answer: B QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode 070-463 exam Answer: C QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture Answer: D QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture 070-463 dumps Answer: A QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process 070-463 pdf Answer: D QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy Answer: B QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component 070-463 vce Answer: A QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component Answer: B QUESTION 41 B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above 070-463 exam Answer: C QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real-time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above Answer: C
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External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.
External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.
Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.
Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.
MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, the Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.
The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).
Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html Additionally, items that have been crawled are turned into artifacts in this stage for inclusion within the search index. Link and URL information is stored in the link database and then processed and forwarded to the Analytics Processing component.
