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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 219

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070-347 dumps

QUESTION 34.You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has
mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external
domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for
each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information
only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
070-347 exam Answer: D, F
QUESTION 35.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000
people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will
take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the
employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the
migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in
plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only
Answer: C
QUESTION 36.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email
messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language
content and IP addresses of the country or region of origin.
Which filters and options should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate 070-347 dumps answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 37
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the
same scrambling code group.
070-347 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 39
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic
power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB.

C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D
QUESTION 40
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450
for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
070-347 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D
QUESTION 42
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLDCH, it
retransmits the message RRCConnectionReleaseComplete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the
idle mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink
throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64,
0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76.

B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D
QUESTION 44
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE
should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
070-347 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours
the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C
QUESTION 46
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging
information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B.by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn’t know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality.
070-347 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data.

Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The WCDMA – GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
070-347 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 49
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
Answer: D
QUESTION 50
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is
under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 51
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent
AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C.URA-PCH state.
D.CELLFACH state.

QUESTION 52
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2
kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many
sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area
of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
070-347 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B
QUESTION 54
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the
outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A
QUESTION 55
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies.
070-347 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 56
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM
possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C
QUESTION 57
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
070-347 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer:
QUESTION 59
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
070-347 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is a typical value (in dB) of the “PtxPrimaryCPICH” parameter (this parameter
determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC
WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which applications can be created on Webex Teams developer portal?
A. Adapters and AppTies
B. Java and Python programs
C. Pages and Snapins
D. Integrations and Bots
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid?
A. CCW order
B. Customer Smart Account
C. Product Access Key (PAK)
D. Holding Account
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid?
A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan.
B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased.
C. SWSS is only for data center customers.
D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners?
A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders
B. quote and order resale product only
C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers
D. ordering tool for Distributors only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter?
A. Webex Edge Connect
B. An Apple iPad
C. Room Kit Plus Connector
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Webex Edge service uses +E.164 numbers?
A. Webex Edge does not support +E.164 numbers
B. Webex Edge Audio
C. Webex Edge Video Mesh
D. Webex Edge Management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which action for Cisco Proximity is valid?
A. Pair to a nearby Cisco room device and wirelessly share content to the meeting
B. Determine which attendee would be the most effective presenter based on latency
C. Pair to the room lightning system through infrared
D. Locate the attendees based on network IP address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan?
A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams
B. Meetings with Teams
C. Video conferencing only
D. Calling with Teams
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers?
A. Salesforce and Sales Connect
B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook
C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal
D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes Webex Edge Audio?
A. Webex Edge Audio uses the existing Cisco UCM and Expressway products to pass the audio traffic over the Internet
to the Webex meeting.
B. Webex Edge Audio only works with ISDN lines.
C. Webex Edge Audio requires Webex Edge Video Mesh to function correctly.
D. Webex Audio is limited to 10 participants.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Who defines the Webex Teams retention policy?
A. Each user defines their own retention policy
B. Each customer defines its own retention policy
C. Local governments define retention policy
D. Cisco defines the retention policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages?
A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations.
B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications.
C. Yes, only if everyone agrees.
D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement about Development on the Webex platform is valid?
A. only available for customer organizations
B. pay per use
C. Webex does not support developers
D. free for everyone
Correct Answer: B

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Exam By:Cisco
Exam Code:400-101
Exam Name:CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Related Certification(s):CCIE Routing & Switching

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  • Network Principles 10%
  • Layer 2 Technologies 13%
  • Layer 3 Technologies 37%
  • VPN Technologies 13%
  • Infrastructure Security 5%
  • Infrastructure Services 12%
  • Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%

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Cisco Certified Curriculum

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QUESTION 1
Which two options about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two)
A. In a PIM-DM network, routers that have no upstream neighbors prune back unwanted traffic
B. PIM-DM initially floods multicast traffic throughout the network.
C. PIM-DM supports only shared trees.
D. PIM-DM uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.
E. PIM-DM cannot be used to build a shared distribution tree.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2

Pass4itsure 400-101 exam questions-q2

Refer to exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The Reported distance for the Successor is 128256
B. The metric installed into the route tabel is 4352
C. The metric installed into the route table is 126256
D. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the summary disappears?
A. Regardless of the metric of the component route ,the metric of the summary is unchanged in order to keep stability
B. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary metric is retained for stability /
C. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the summary changes to the next-best
composite metric
D. If the component route previously dis not have the best composite metric, the summary metric is updated and
updates are sent to peers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two commands should you enter to enable IP Source Guard with source IP and MAC address filtering? (Choose
two)
A. ip verify source tracking
B. switchport port-security
C. ip verify unicast source
D. ip verify source
E. ip verify source port-security
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 6
What is the correct multicast destination address for IGMPV2 leave-group messages?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 239.0.0.2
C. 224.0.0.1
D. 239.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What does the dis on a lan periodically transrnit to ensure that the IS-IS link-state database is accurate?
A. IIH
B. Csnp
C. ISH
D. LIP
E. PSNPCCIERS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
How can you protect a device from Dos attacksdirected against its terminal and management ports?
A. Enable AAA local authentication on the terminal and management ports
B. Configure TCP keepalives on the terminal and management ports
C. Reserve a terminal or management port with a highly restrictive ACL
D. Configure the max-login-attempts command on the terminal and management ports
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which information is contained in an OSPF type7 not-so-stybby area NSSA extemal LSA?
A. The paths and costs to reach other stub area border routers in the ospf routing domain.
B. The external network address mask and cost to reach networks that are extemal to the OSPF NSSA including the
default route.
C. The address of routers that connect the current area to other areas and the cost to reach those routersCCIERS.
D. Extemal net work address ,mask,and cost to reach each nework that is external to the ospf domain and only within
the NSSA.
E. The paths and costs to all OSPF NSSA areas that are external to the current area.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
How is the MRU for a multilink bundle determined?
A. It is negotiated by LCP.
B. It is manually configured on the multilink bundle.
C. It is manually configured on all physical interfaces of a multilink bundle.
D. It is negotiated by NCP.
E. It is negotiated by IPCP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two)
A. VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices.
B. VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets.
C. VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port.
D. VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region.
E. Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two)
A. cluster list
B. local preference
C. AS path
D. MED
E. weight
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two)
A. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment
B. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code
C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications
D. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane
E. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS
Correct Answer: AE

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You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimmer and dimDistrict dimension tables and the fact sales fact table. The dimmer table contains records for 70-463 dumps each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimmer table.
B. Partition the fact sales table on the district column.
C. Create a user district table that contains primary key columns from the dimmer and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the fact sales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C

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A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project has been deployed to the SSIS catalog.
The project includes a project Connection Manager to connect to the data warehouse.
The SSIS catalog includes two Environments:
Development
QA
Each Environment defines a single Environment Variable named ConnectionString of type string. The value of each variable consists of the connection string to the development or QA data warehouses.
You need to be able to execute deployed packages by using either of the defined Environments.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)   070-463 dumps
070-463
Answer:
070-463

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You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Answer: A

Question No: 4
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Answer: C

Question No: 5
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
The log archival must be automated.  70-463 dumps
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an MSI file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flows to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dump error /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J

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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 18 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Answer: E
Question No : 19 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You write the following Transact-SQL query:
070-461 dumps

You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query.
B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader.
C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query.
D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE()
C. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112)
D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()))
Answer: D
Explanation:
Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer:

You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables.
Question No : 21 Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: F

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230

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QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog

070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
70-463 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum teamwork?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node?
A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
070-463 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and

A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
Answer: B
QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and

QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process
070-463 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy
Answer: B
QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component
Answer: B
QUESTION 41
B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real-time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers Free Update

External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.

External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
70-331
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.

Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.

Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.

MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, the Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.

The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).

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QUESTION 1
A Linux administrator needs to switch from text mode to GUI. Which of the following runlevels will start the GUI by
default?
A. Runlevel 3
B. Runlevel 4
C. Runlevel 5
D. Runlevel 6
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.linfo.org/runlevel_def.html

QUESTION 2
A system administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems
administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files
should be watched by the agents?
A. /var/log/audit/audit.log
B. /var/log/kern.log
C. /var/log/monitor
D. /etc/rsyslog.conf
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point /mnt/testvol and make
the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish
this task?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An administrator needs to change the IP address on a server remotely. After updating the configuration files, a network
restart is needed. However, the administrator fears that when the network connection drops, the network restart script
will be killed before the new IP address has been set.
Which of the following commands would prevent the script from being killed?
A. nohup service network restart
B. service network restart and
C. echo “service network restart” | at now
D. dg service network restart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to disable Ctrl-Alt-Del in Linux?
A. /etc/inittab
B. ~/.bash_profile
C. /etc/securetty
D. /etc/security/limits.conf
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.linuxtechi.com/disable-reboot-using-ctrl-alt-del-keys/

QUESTION 6
A new corporate policy states that Bluetooth should be disabled on all company laptops. Which of the following
commands would disable the use of Bluetooth?
A. echo “blacklist bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist-bluetooth
B. echo “kill bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/kill-bluetooth
C. echo “modprobe bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/modprbe-bluetooth
D. echo “rmod bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/rmmod-bluetooth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the X11 system?
A. X11 provides graphical display capabilities
B. X11 provides command line capabilities
C. X11 provides networking capabilities
D. X11 provides telephony capabilities.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X_Window_System

QUESTION 8
An administrator reviews the following configuration file provided by a DevOps engineer:

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Which of the following would the application parsing this file MOST likely have to support?
A. YAML
B. AJAX
C. JSON
D. SOAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to boot a DVD from a remote device to initialize a Linux system setup on bare metal
hardware as if it is a local DVD?
A. UEFI
B. PXE
C. NFS
D. GRUB
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/installation_guide/ch-bootx86

QUESTION 10
A junior administrator of a physical server receives log messages indicating the out-of-memory killer has been active. All
memory slots are in use on the motherboard, but additional disk space is available. Space has been allocated for a
swap file.
Which of the following should the administrator use to reduce the output of memory messages?
A. free : swapoff / swapfile ; swapon -a
B. mkswap /swapfile; swapon ?
C. fallocate ? 2G /swapfile andand swapon ?
D. echo “1” > /proc/meninfo ; swapon / swapfile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A systems administrator needs to append output of ls -lha /opt command to the contents of a test.txt file. Which of the
following commands will accomplish this?
A. ls –lha /opt > test.txt
B. ls –lha /opt
C. ls –lha /opt >> test.txt
D. ls –lha /opt

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Exam By:Cisco
Exam Code:010-151
Exam Name:Cisco Certified Technician Data Center
Related Certification(s):CCT Data Center

Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.

Please see the exams for the process I listed below.

You need to know

How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.

  • Data Center Basics 17%
  • Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware 25%
  • Cisco UCS and Cisco NX-OS software operation 25%
  • Service-Related Knowledge 33%

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I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.

Practice

Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.

Manage exam time

When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.

If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.

Success in the 010-151 exam: Pass4itsure Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose
five.)
A. blade server status
B. hard drive status
C. host OS boot status
D. CPU status
E. mezzanine card status
F. memory DIMM status
G. fan and power status
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which three options are the minimum browser requirements to log into the Cisco CIMC GUI? (Choose three.)
A. Java 1.6 or higher
B. HTTP and HTTPS enabled
C. Adobe Flash Player 10 or higher
D. Internet Explorer version 10
E. Firefox 26.0
F. Adobe Shockwave Player 11 or higher
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which command syntax is correct to reset the admin password when the switch is in the kickstart prompt “switch(boot)
#”?
A. exec -> admin-password
B. connect local-mgmt -> admin-password
C. configure terminal -> admin-password
D. connect nxos -> admin-password
E. admin-password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q6

Where is the best place to see bootflash free space?
A. A – Available Memory
B. B – Total Memory
C. C – Local Storage Information
D. D – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP
Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three troubleshooting procedures do you perform when there is no power to a Cisco UCS B250 M2 Blade
Server? (Choose three.)
A. Decommission and acknowledge the blade.
B. Check the back of the blade to ensure that there is no damage to the connection that goes into chassis.
C. Reseat the memory DIMMs.
D. Check the CPU sockets for bent pins.
E. Reseat the blade in the same slot in the chassis.
F. Move the blade to another slot in the chassis.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q12

What is the name of this Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch?
A. Cisco Nexus 3132Q
B. Cisco Nexus 3172PQ
C. Cisco Nexus 3524
D. Cisco Nexus 3016
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q13

Which item does A represent?
A. Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
B. Virtual Interface Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
C. mLOM for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
D. Virtual Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
E. SuperCap module for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
Correct Answer: C

Our 010-151 exam dumps will clear all your questions and help you pass the 010-151 exam on your first try. This 010-151 practice test will help you understand the real test scenario. In addition, you can get a 010-151 pdf dumps from Pass4itsure.

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Preparing for 70-741 Exam

70-741-exam-step

Exam By:Microsoft
Exam Code:70−741
Exam Name:Networkingwith Windows Server2016
Related Certification(s):MCSA

Maybe you are also interested in this.

[New Version] Best Microsoft 70-742 Dumps Practice Test Exam Questions And Answers Youtube Identity with Windows Server 2016

Taking a Microsoft certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Microsoft certification exam.

Please see the exams for the process I listed below.

Step 1. Learn what you need to know

How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Microsoft publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.

  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)
  • Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)
  • Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)

This is the first place I learned when I was learning the Windows Server 2016 exam network. The targets displayed in the screenshot are divided into sub-goals. Each subgoal has a set of skills listed in paragraphs.

This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.

Step 2. Find good study materials

You need very good learning materials.As a Microsoft Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience. This is my three recommendations for Microsoft learning materials:

Microsoft Certified Curriculum

Visit the official Microsoft course: 20741A: Networking with Windows Server 2016

Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Microsoft Certified Network Assistant exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.

Publisher Learning Guide

If you don’t have the ability to take an official Microsoft course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.

Online Resources

Microsoft has released almost all of Microsoft’s content on TechNet and MSDN, so it’s quite possible to cover any technical details that can be asked in TechNet.

Sanctioned “brain dumps”

Pass4itsure have best Microsoft 70-741 Dumps for you to prepare Networking with Windows Server 2016 exam, but most of the MCSA students like to take the help of the Pass4itsure, so that they don’t have to face much inconvenience when MCSA 70-741 exam prep for their Microsoft 70-741 questions.

Step 3. Take notes

I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.

Step 4. Practice

Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.

Step 5. Manage exam time

When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.

If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.

Pass4itsure gives you a chance to get instant success in the 70-741 exam

Pass4itsure

Here are some unique:

Latest Microsoft 70-741 Actual Free Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1.
Server1 has eight network adapters that are dedicated to virtual machines. The network adapters are Remote Direct
Memory
Access (RDMA)-enabled.
You plan to use Software Defined Networking (SDN). You will host the virtual machines for multiple tenants on the
Hyper-V host.
You need to ensure that the network connections for the virtual machines are resilient if one or more physical network
adapters fail.
What should you implement?
A. single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV)
B. NIC Teaming on the Hyper-V host
C. virtual Receive-side Scaling (vRSS)
D. Switch Embedded Teaming (SET)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have servers named Server1 and DHCP1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 contains an IPv4 scope
named Scope1.
You have 1,000 client computers.
You need to configure Server1 to lease IP addresses for Scope1. The solution must ensure that Server1 is used to
respond to up to 30 percent of the DHCP client requests only.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. From the DHCP console, run the Configure Failover wizard.
B. From Server Manager, install the Network Load Balancing feature.
C. From Server Manager, install the Failover Clustering feature.
D. From the DHCP console, create a superscope.
Correct Answer: A
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831385(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1.
You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1.
Solution: From the Network Policy Server console, you export the templates, and you view the exported XML file.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1.
You need to authorize DHCP on Server1.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two DHCP servers named
Server1 and Server2.
Server1 has the following IP configuration.
Server2 has the following IP configuration.
Some users report that sometimes they cannot access the network because of conflicting IP addresses.
You need to configure DHCP to avoid leasing addresses that are in use already.
Solution: On Server1, you modify the EndRange IP address of the scope.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1.
All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10.
Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member
of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network.
Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to a remote access server that runs
Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subject to access
policies in
Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
All Windows computers on the network are activated by using Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use
Remote Desktop Services (RDS).
You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network.
Which action can you perform on the network by using IPAM?
A. Audit user and device logon event from NPS.
B. Audit logon events on the RDS server.
C. Audit configuration changes to the remote access server.
D. Audit certificate enrollment requests on CA1.
Correct Answer: A
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/08/15/step-by-step-setup-windows-server-2012-ipam-in-yourenvironment/

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1.
Server1 is configured to use a forwarder named Server2 that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10. Server2 can resolve
names hosted on the Internet successfully. Server2 hosts a primary DNS zone named adatum.com.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You have a Scale-Out File Server that has a share named Share1. Share1 contains a virtual disk file named Disk1.vhd.
You plan to create a guest failover cluster.
You need to ensure that you can use the virtual disk as a shared virtual disk for the gust failover cluster.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Optimize VHD
B. Optimize VHDSet
C. Convert-VHD
D. Set-VHD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and
only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. SSTP
C. L2TP
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd458955(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your network contains multiple wireless access points (WAPs) that use WPA2-Personal authentication. The network
contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA).
The security administrator at your company plans to implement WPA2-Enterprise authentication on the WAPs.
To support the authentication change, you deploy a server that has Network Policy Server (NPS) installed.
You need to configure NPS to authenticate the wireless clients.
What should you do on the NPS server?
A. Add RADIUS clients and configure network policies.
B. Create a remote RADIUS server group and configure connection request policies.
C. Create a remote RADIUS server group and install a server certificate.
D. Add RADIUS clients and configure connection request policies.
Correct Answer: A
https://ittrainingday.com/2013/12/25/how-to-configure-a-windows-radius-server-for-802-1x-wireless-or-wiredconnections/

QUESTION 11
You have an IP Filters Network Policy Server (NPS) template that is used by an NPS policy. The IP filters are
configured as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
You have multiple servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have a server named Server1 that is configured
as a domain controller and a DNS server.
You need to create an Active Directory-integrated zone on Server1.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1.
You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-NpsSharedSecretTemplate -Name Template1 .
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Our 70-741 exam dumps will clear all your questions and help you pass the 70-741 exam on your first try. This 70-741 practice test will help you understand the real test scenario. In addition, you can get a 70-741 PDF dumps from https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-741.html.