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QUESTION 1 Which applications can be created on Webex Teams developer portal? A. Adapters and AppTies B. Java and Python programs C. Pages and Snapins D. Integrations and Bots Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid? A. CCW order B. Customer Smart Account C. Product Access Key (PAK) D. Holding Account Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid? A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan. B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased. C. SWSS is only for data center customers. D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners? A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders B. quote and order resale product only C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers D. ordering tool for Distributors only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter? A. Webex Edge Connect B. An Apple iPad C. Room Kit Plus Connector D. Cisco Meeting Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which Webex Edge service uses +E.164 numbers? A. Webex Edge does not support +E.164 numbers B. Webex Edge Audio C. Webex Edge Video Mesh D. Webex Edge Management Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which action for Cisco Proximity is valid? A. Pair to a nearby Cisco room device and wirelessly share content to the meeting B. Determine which attendee would be the most effective presenter based on latency C. Pair to the room lightning system through infrared D. Locate the attendees based on network IP address Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan? A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams B. Meetings with Teams C. Video conferencing only D. Calling with Teams Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers? A. Salesforce and Sales Connect B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which statement best describes Webex Edge Audio? A. Webex Edge Audio uses the existing Cisco UCM and Expressway products to pass the audio traffic over the Internet to the Webex meeting. B. Webex Edge Audio only works with ISDN lines. C. Webex Edge Audio requires Webex Edge Video Mesh to function correctly. D. Webex Audio is limited to 10 participants. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Who defines the Webex Teams retention policy? A. Each user defines their own retention policy B. Each customer defines its own retention policy C. Local governments define retention policy D. Cisco defines the retention policy Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages? A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations. B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications. C. Yes, only if everyone agrees. D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which statement about Development on the Webex platform is valid? A. only available for customer organizations B. pay per use C. Webex does not support developers D. free for everyone Correct Answer: B
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Exam By:Cisco Exam Code:400-101 Exam Name:CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam Related Certification(s):CCIE Routing & Switching
Maybe you are also interested in other Cisco exams.
Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.
Please see the exams for the process I listed below.
See! Step 1. Learn what you need to know.
How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 13%
Layer 3 Technologies 37%
VPN Technologies 13%
Infrastructure Security 5%
Infrastructure Services 12%
Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%
This is the first place I learned when I was learning the CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam network. The targets displayed in the screenshot are divided into sub-goals. Each subgoal has a set of skills listed in paragraphs.
This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.
See! Step 2. Find good study materials
You need very good learning materials.As a Cisco Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience.
Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.
Publisher Learning Guide
If you don’t have the ability to take an official Cisco course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.
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See! Step 3. Take notes
I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.
See! Step 4. Practice
Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.
See! Step 5. Manage exam time
When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.
If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.
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2019 Latest Cisco 400-101 Actual Free Exam Questions
QUESTION 1 Which two options about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two) A. In a PIM-DM network, routers that have no upstream neighbors prune back unwanted traffic B. PIM-DM initially floods multicast traffic throughout the network. C. PIM-DM supports only shared trees. D. PIM-DM uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic. E. PIM-DM cannot be used to build a shared distribution tree. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Refer to exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true? A. The Reported distance for the Successor is 128256 B. The metric installed into the route tabel is 4352 C. The metric installed into the route table is 126256 D. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the summary disappears? A. Regardless of the metric of the component route ,the metric of the summary is unchanged in order to keep stability B. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary metric is retained for stability / C. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the summary changes to the next-best composite metric D. If the component route previously dis not have the best composite metric, the summary metric is updated and updates are sent to peers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two commands should you enter to enable IP Source Guard with source IP and MAC address filtering? (Choose two) A. ip verify source tracking B. switchport port-security C. ip verify unicast source D. ip verify source E. ip verify source port-security Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 What is the correct multicast destination address for IGMPV2 leave-group messages? A. 224.0.0.2 B. 239.0.0.2 C. 224.0.0.1 D. 239.0.0.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What does the dis on a lan periodically transrnit to ensure that the IS-IS link-state database is accurate? A. IIH B. Csnp C. ISH D. LIP E. PSNPCCIERS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 How can you protect a device from Dos attacksdirected against its terminal and management ports? A. Enable AAA local authentication on the terminal and management ports B. Configure TCP keepalives on the terminal and management ports C. Reserve a terminal or management port with a highly restrictive ACL D. Configure the max-login-attempts command on the terminal and management ports Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which information is contained in an OSPF type7 not-so-stybby area NSSA extemal LSA? A. The paths and costs to reach other stub area border routers in the ospf routing domain. B. The external network address mask and cost to reach networks that are extemal to the OSPF NSSA including the default route. C. The address of routers that connect the current area to other areas and the cost to reach those routersCCIERS. D. Extemal net work address ,mask,and cost to reach each nework that is external to the ospf domain and only within the NSSA. E. The paths and costs to all OSPF NSSA areas that are external to the current area. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 How is the MRU for a multilink bundle determined? A. It is negotiated by LCP. B. It is manually configured on the multilink bundle. C. It is manually configured on all physical interfaces of a multilink bundle. D. It is negotiated by NCP. E. It is negotiated by IPCP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two) A. VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices. B. VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets. C. VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port. D. VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region. E. Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2 Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12 Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two) A. cluster list B. local preference C. AS path D. MED E. weight Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13 Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two) A. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment B. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications D. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane E. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS Correct Answer: AE
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Question No: 1
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimmer and dimDistrict dimension tables and the fact sales fact table. The dimmer table contains records for 70-463 dumps each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimmer table.
B. Partition the fact sales table on the district column.
C. Create a user district table that contains primary key columns from the dimmer and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the fact sales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C
Question No: 2
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project has been deployed to the SSIS catalog.
The project includes a project Connection Manager to connect to the data warehouse.
The SSIS catalog includes two Environments:
Development
QA
Each Environment defines a single Environment Variable named ConnectionString of type string. The value of each variable consists of the connection string to the development or QA data warehouses.
You need to be able to execute deployed packages by using either of the defined Environments.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 070-463 dumps
Answer:
Question No : 3
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Answer: A
Question No: 4
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Answer: C
Question No: 5
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
The log archival must be automated. 70-463 dumps
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an MSI file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flows to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dump error /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164
Question No : 18You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use? A. HOLDLOCK B. ROWLOCK C. XLOCK D. UPDLOCK E. TABLOCK Answer: E Question No : 19You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You write the following Transact-SQL query:
You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do? A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query. B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader. C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query. D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables. Answer: D Explanation: Question No : 20Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use? A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()) B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE() C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112) D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())) Answer: D Explanation: Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer: You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables. Question No : 21 Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do? A. Use the CAST function. B. Use the DATE data type. C. Use the FORMAT function. D. Use an appropriate collation. E. Use a user-defined table type. F. Use the VARBINARY data type. G. Use the DATETIME data type. H. Use the DATETIME2 data type. I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type. J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function. Answer: F
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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230
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QUESTION 16 Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17 Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19 Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 20 What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery 070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21 A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections? A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1 70-463 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23 What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24 From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning 070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum teamwork?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node? A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow 070-463 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode Answer: C QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture Answer: D QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture 070-463 vce Answer: A QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow Answer: B QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode 070-463 exam Answer: C QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture Answer: D QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture 070-463 dumps Answer: A QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process 070-463 pdf Answer: D QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy Answer: B QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component 070-463 vce Answer: A QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component Answer: B QUESTION 41 B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above 070-463 exam Answer: C QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real-time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above Answer: C
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External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.
External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.
Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.
Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.
MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, the Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.
The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).
Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html Additionally, items that have been crawled are turned into artifacts in this stage for inclusion within the search index. Link and URL information is stored in the link database and then processed and forwarded to the Analytics Processing component.
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QUESTION 1 A Linux administrator needs to switch from text mode to GUI. Which of the following runlevels will start the GUI by default? A. Runlevel 3 B. Runlevel 4 C. Runlevel 5 D. Runlevel 6 Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.linfo.org/runlevel_def.html
QUESTION 2 A system administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files should be watched by the agents? A. /var/log/audit/audit.log B. /var/log/kern.log C. /var/log/monitor D. /etc/rsyslog.conf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point /mnt/testvol and make the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish this task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An administrator needs to change the IP address on a server remotely. After updating the configuration files, a network restart is needed. However, the administrator fears that when the network connection drops, the network restart script will be killed before the new IP address has been set. Which of the following commands would prevent the script from being killed? A. nohup service network restart B. service network restart and C. echo “service network restart” | at now D. dg service network restart Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following configuration files should be modified to disable Ctrl-Alt-Del in Linux? A. /etc/inittab B. ~/.bash_profile C. /etc/securetty D. /etc/security/limits.conf Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.linuxtechi.com/disable-reboot-using-ctrl-alt-del-keys/
QUESTION 6 A new corporate policy states that Bluetooth should be disabled on all company laptops. Which of the following commands would disable the use of Bluetooth? A. echo “blacklist bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist-bluetooth B. echo “kill bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/kill-bluetooth C. echo “modprobe bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/modprbe-bluetooth D. echo “rmod bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/rmmod-bluetooth Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the X11 system? A. X11 provides graphical display capabilities B. X11 provides command line capabilities C. X11 provides networking capabilities D. X11 provides telephony capabilities. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X_Window_System
QUESTION 8 An administrator reviews the following configuration file provided by a DevOps engineer:
Which of the following would the application parsing this file MOST likely have to support? A. YAML B. AJAX C. JSON D. SOAP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A junior administrator of a physical server receives log messages indicating the out-of-memory killer has been active. All memory slots are in use on the motherboard, but additional disk space is available. Space has been allocated for a swap file. Which of the following should the administrator use to reduce the output of memory messages? A. free : swapoff / swapfile ; swapon -a B. mkswap /swapfile; swapon ? C. fallocate ? 2G /swapfile andand swapon ? D. echo “1” > /proc/meninfo ; swapon / swapfile Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A systems administrator needs to append output of ls -lha /opt command to the contents of a test.txt file. Which of the following commands will accomplish this? A. ls –lha /opt > test.txt B. ls –lha /opt C. ls –lha /opt >> test.txt D. ls –lha /opt
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Start preparing!Cisco 010-151
Exam By:Cisco Exam Code:010-151 Exam Name:Cisco Certified Technician Data Center Related Certification(s):CCT Data Center
Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.
Please see the exams for the process I listed below.
You need to know
How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.
Data Center Basics 17%
Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware 25%
Cisco UCS and Cisco NX-OS software operation 25%
Service-Related Knowledge 33%
This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.
Good study materials
You need very good learning materials.As a Cisco Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience. This is my recommendations for Cisco learning materials:
Cisco Certified Curriculum
Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Cisco Certified Technician Data Center exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.
Publisher Learning Guide
If you don’t have the ability to take an official Cisco course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.
Sanctioned “brain dumps”
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Take notes
I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.
Practice
Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.
Manage exam time
When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.
If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.
Success in the 010-151 exam: Pass4itsure Q&As
QUESTION 1 Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose five.) A. blade server status B. hard drive status C. host OS boot status D. CPU status E. mezzanine card status F. memory DIMM status G. fan and power status Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Which three options are the minimum browser requirements to log into the Cisco CIMC GUI? (Choose three.) A. Java 1.6 or higher B. HTTP and HTTPS enabled C. Adobe Flash Player 10 or higher D. Internet Explorer version 10 E. Firefox 26.0 F. Adobe Shockwave Player 11 or higher Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which command syntax is correct to reset the admin password when the switch is in the kickstart prompt “switch(boot) #”? A. exec -> admin-password B. connect local-mgmt -> admin-password C. configure terminal -> admin-password D. connect nxos -> admin-password E. admin-password Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data? A. 10 Mb/s B. 100 Mb/s C. 1000 Mb/s D. 10000 Mb/s Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is the best place to see bootflash free space? A. A – Available Memory B. B – Total Memory C. C – Local Storage Information D. D – High Availability Details Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure? A. A – Chassis 1 B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs C. C – Chassis1 – Servers D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect? A. Amber B. Red C. Blinking amber D. Blinking red Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch? A. first-generation supervisor module B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2) C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E) D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which three troubleshooting procedures do you perform when there is no power to a Cisco UCS B250 M2 Blade Server? (Choose three.) A. Decommission and acknowledge the blade. B. Check the back of the blade to ensure that there is no damage to the connection that goes into chassis. C. Reseat the memory DIMMs. D. Check the CPU sockets for bent pins. E. Reseat the blade in the same slot in the chassis. F. Move the blade to another slot in the chassis. Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 11 Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.) A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module B. Virtual Ethernet Module C. Virtual Supervisor Module D. Virtual Memory Controller Module E. Virtual Network Module Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the name of this Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch? A. Cisco Nexus 3132Q B. Cisco Nexus 3172PQ C. Cisco Nexus 3524 D. Cisco Nexus 3016 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
Which item does A represent? A. Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers B. Virtual Interface Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers C. mLOM for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers D. Virtual Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers E. SuperCap module for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers Correct Answer: C
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Taking a Microsoft certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Microsoft certification exam.
Please see the exams for the process I listed below.
Step 1. Learn what you need to know
How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Microsoft publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.
Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)
Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)
Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)
Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)
Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)
This is the first place I learned when I was learning the Windows Server 2016 exam network. The targets displayed in the screenshot are divided into sub-goals. Each subgoal has a set of skills listed in paragraphs.
This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.
Step 2. Find good study materials
You need very good learning materials.As a Microsoft Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience. This is my three recommendations for Microsoft learning materials:
Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Microsoft Certified Network Assistant exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.
Publisher Learning Guide
If you don’t have the ability to take an official Microsoft course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.
Online Resources
Microsoft has released almost all of Microsoft’s content on TechNet and MSDN, so it’s quite possible to cover any technical details that can be asked in TechNet.
Sanctioned “brain dumps”
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Step 3. Take notes
I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.
Step 4. Practice
Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.
Step 5. Manage exam time
When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.
If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.
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Latest Microsoft 70-741 Actual Free Exam Questions
QUESTION 1 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. Server1 has eight network adapters that are dedicated to virtual machines. The network adapters are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)-enabled. You plan to use Software Defined Networking (SDN). You will host the virtual machines for multiple tenants on the Hyper-V host. You need to ensure that the network connections for the virtual machines are resilient if one or more physical network adapters fail. What should you implement? A. single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV) B. NIC Teaming on the Hyper-V host C. virtual Receive-side Scaling (vRSS) D. Switch Embedded Teaming (SET) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 You have servers named Server1 and DHCP1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 contains an IPv4 scope named Scope1. You have 1,000 client computers. You need to configure Server1 to lease IP addresses for Scope1. The solution must ensure that Server1 is used to respond to up to 30 percent of the DHCP client requests only. You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1. What should you do next? A. From the DHCP console, run the Configure Failover wizard. B. From Server Manager, install the Network Load Balancing feature. C. From Server Manager, install the Failover Clustering feature. D. From the DHCP console, create a superscope. Correct Answer: A https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831385(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed. You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1. You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1. Solution: From the Network Policy Server console, you export the templates, and you view the exported XML file. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1. You need to authorize DHCP on Server1. What should you run? A. dism.exe B. dns.exe C. dnscmd.exe D. netsh.exe E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting H. Set-DNSServerSetting Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two DHCP servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has the following IP configuration. Server2 has the following IP configuration. Some users report that sometimes they cannot access the network because of conflicting IP addresses. You need to configure DHCP to avoid leasing addresses that are in use already. Solution: On Server1, you modify the EndRange IP address of the scope. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1. All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10. Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network. Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to a remote access server that runs Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subject to access policies in Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. All Windows computers on the network are activated by using Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use Remote Desktop Services (RDS). You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network. Which action can you perform on the network by using IPAM? A. Audit user and device logon event from NPS. B. Audit logon events on the RDS server. C. Audit configuration changes to the remote access server. D. Audit certificate enrollment requests on CA1. Correct Answer: A https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2013/08/15/step-by-step-setup-windows-server-2012-ipam-in-yourenvironment/
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. Server1 is configured to use a forwarder named Server2 that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10. Server2 can resolve names hosted on the Internet successfully. Server2 hosts a primary DNS zone named adatum.com. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 You have a Scale-Out File Server that has a share named Share1. Share1 contains a virtual disk file named Disk1.vhd. You plan to create a guest failover cluster. You need to ensure that you can use the virtual disk as a shared virtual disk for the gust failover cluster. Which cmdlet should you use? A. Optimize VHD B. Optimize VHDSet C. Convert-VHD D. Set-VHD Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet. You install the Remote Access server role on Server1. You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443. Which VPN protocol should you use? A. PPTP B. SSTP C. L2TP D. IKEv2 Correct Answer: B https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd458955(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 10 Your network contains multiple wireless access points (WAPs) that use WPA2-Personal authentication. The network contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA). The security administrator at your company plans to implement WPA2-Enterprise authentication on the WAPs. To support the authentication change, you deploy a server that has Network Policy Server (NPS) installed. You need to configure NPS to authenticate the wireless clients. What should you do on the NPS server? A. Add RADIUS clients and configure network policies. B. Create a remote RADIUS server group and configure connection request policies. C. Create a remote RADIUS server group and install a server certificate. D. Add RADIUS clients and configure connection request policies. Correct Answer: A https://ittrainingday.com/2013/12/25/how-to-configure-a-windows-radius-server-for-802-1x-wireless-or-wiredconnections/
QUESTION 11 You have an IP Filters Network Policy Server (NPS) template that is used by an NPS policy. The IP filters are configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You have multiple servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have a server named Server1 that is configured as a domain controller and a DNS server. You need to create an Active Directory-integrated zone on Server1. What should you run? A. dism.exe B. dns.exe C. dnscmd.exe D. netsh.exe E. Set-DhcpServerDatabase F. Set-DhcpServerv4DnsSetting G. Set-DhcpServerv6DnsSetting H. Set-DNSServerSetting Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy and Access Services server role installed. You create a Shared Secret Network Policy Server (NPS) template named Template1. You need to view the shared secret string used for Template1. Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-NpsSharedSecretTemplate -Name Template1 . Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
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This exam is intended only for candidates who have taken Exam 70-345: Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016. If you have not taken Exam 345, you will not earn certification by taking this exam.
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions,
mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
pass4itsure MS-202 exam Skills measured
Manage modern messaging infrastructure (20-25%)
Manage mail flow topology (5-10%)
Manage recipients and devices (10-15%)
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (20-25%)
Secure the messaging environment (35-40%)
Latest Microsoft other Certification MS-202 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. In Exchange Online, you create an archive mailbox for each user. Users who have a mailbox in the on-premises Exchange organization report that they cannot access their archive mailbox. You verify that users who have a mailbox in Office 365 can access their archive mailbox successfully. You need to resolve the issue. What should you modify? A. the sharing policy B. the mailbox permissions C. the organization relationship D. the device tenant policy Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/sharing-and-collaboration/set-organizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. B. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the databases on another server. C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. D. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the topology shown in the following exhibit.
The organization contains the servers shown in the following table.
The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations: The forest functional level of Active Directory in Windows Server 2008 R2 The domain controllers in Active Directory Windows Server 2012 R2. The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019. You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the upgrade. What should you do? A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2 B. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016 C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016 D. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019 Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/system-requirements?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 5 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains the users shown in the following table.
You need to provide each user with an archive mailbox that is stored in Exchange Online. Which admin center should you use to perform the configuration for each user? To answer, drag the appropriate admin centers to the correct users. Each admin center may be used once, or not at all. You may drag the split bar between the panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and deleted items. What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You are auditing the litigation hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department. You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled. You need to discover who placed the Litigation hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was enabled. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report. B. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report. C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet. D. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 an organization that contains two Mailbox servers. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG). You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the use of the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option during the hybrid deployment. What are two benefits of using Exchange Modern Hybrid instead of Exchange Classic Hybrid? Each correct answer presents part of the solutions. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. uses Organization Configuration Transfer to configure Exchange Online B. allows federated sharing between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online C. allows the use of Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for on-premises users D. eliminates the need to purchase publicly trusted certificates for communication between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online E. preserves mailbox quotas when mailboxes are moved between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers? A. a transport agent B. a separate Exchange server C. a separate mailbox database D. an audit policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com. Users report that email messages from a domain named fabrikam.com are identified as spam even though the messages are legitimate. You need to prevent messages from fabrikam.com from being identified as spam. What should you do? A. Edit the default mail flow rule to bypass the spam filter. B. Create a new remote domain. C. Edit a spam filter policy. D. Create a new malware filter policy. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size of the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This would work and it needs no user intervention but it would apply to all folders. Furthermore, you only need one default tag, not two.
QUESTION 13 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes. You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to Exchange Online. You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs. Which licenses should you identify? A. an Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox B. Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users C. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users D. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users Correct Answer: B References: https://products.office.com/en-gb/business/compare-more-office-365-for-business-plans
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