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The best Microsoft 70-417 exam practice questions and answers MCSA Windows Server 2012 test in their very first attempts. Our success rates in the past two years have been absolutely impressive, thanks to 70-417 exam our happy customers who are now able to propel their careers in the fast lane.
QUESTION 1
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the syntax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /feature name:Server- Gui- Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QUESTION 2 70-417 exam
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the following storage spaces:
*Data
*Users
*Backups
*Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space.
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. 70-417 exam
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the set parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart, click in the Start Search box, type services.MSC, and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-click services, select export List, and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then click properties.
4. On the General tab, Startup type, click Automatic, Manual, Disabled, or automatic (Delayed Start).
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click the Log On tab, and then do one of the following.
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using the Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.PSL script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the 70-417 exam following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy – ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
Is Microsoft 070-347 dumps really hard? “Enabling Office 365 Services” is the name of Microsoft 070-347 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The best Microsoft 70-347 dumps are based on the real exam questions answers for enabling office 365 Microsoft video series.Pass4itsure 070-347 dumps exam questions answers are updated (219 Q&As) are verified by experts.The Associated certifications of 070-347 dumps is Microsoft Office 365. Pass4itsure is the only one able to provide you the best and fastest updating information about Microsoft certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-347.html dumps.
QUESTION 34.You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has
mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external
domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for
each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information
only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list. 070-347 exam Answer: D, F
QUESTION 35.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000
people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will
take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the
employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the
migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in
plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only Answer: C QUESTION 36.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email
messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language
content and IP addresses of the country or region of origin.
Which filters and options should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate 070-347 dumps answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 37
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the
same scrambling code group.
070-347 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 39
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic
power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB. C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D QUESTION 40
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450
for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
070-347 vce Answer: D QUESTION 41
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D QUESTION 42
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLDCH, it
retransmits the message RRCConnectionReleaseComplete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the
idle mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
070-347 vce Answer: A QUESTION 43
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink
throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64,
0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76. B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D QUESTION 44
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE
should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
070-347 exam Answer: D QUESTION 45
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours
the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C QUESTION 46
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging
information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B.by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn’t know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality. 070-347 dumps Answer: C QUESTION 47
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data. Answer: B QUESTION 48
The WCDMA – GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
070-347 pdf Answer: A QUESTION 49
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
Answer: D QUESTION 50
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is
under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
070-347 vce Answer: A QUESTION 51
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent
AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C.URA-PCH state.
D.CELLFACH state. QUESTION 52
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2
kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many
sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area
of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
070-347 exam Answer: D QUESTION 53
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B QUESTION 54
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the
outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A QUESTION 55
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies. 070-347 dumps Answer: B QUESTION 56
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM
possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C QUESTION 57
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
070-347 pdf Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer: QUESTION 59
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
070-347 vce Answer: C QUESTION 60
What is a typical value (in dB) of the “PtxPrimaryCPICH” parameter (this parameter
determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC
WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100 Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which applications can be created on Webex Teams developer portal? A. Adapters and AppTies B. Java and Python programs C. Pages and Snapins D. Integrations and Bots Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid? A. CCW order B. Customer Smart Account C. Product Access Key (PAK) D. Holding Account Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid? A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan. B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased. C. SWSS is only for data center customers. D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners? A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders B. quote and order resale product only C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers D. ordering tool for Distributors only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter? A. Webex Edge Connect B. An Apple iPad C. Room Kit Plus Connector D. Cisco Meeting Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which Webex Edge service uses +E.164 numbers? A. Webex Edge does not support +E.164 numbers B. Webex Edge Audio C. Webex Edge Video Mesh D. Webex Edge Management Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which action for Cisco Proximity is valid? A. Pair to a nearby Cisco room device and wirelessly share content to the meeting B. Determine which attendee would be the most effective presenter based on latency C. Pair to the room lightning system through infrared D. Locate the attendees based on network IP address Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan? A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams B. Meetings with Teams C. Video conferencing only D. Calling with Teams Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers? A. Salesforce and Sales Connect B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which statement best describes Webex Edge Audio? A. Webex Edge Audio uses the existing Cisco UCM and Expressway products to pass the audio traffic over the Internet to the Webex meeting. B. Webex Edge Audio only works with ISDN lines. C. Webex Edge Audio requires Webex Edge Video Mesh to function correctly. D. Webex Audio is limited to 10 participants. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Who defines the Webex Teams retention policy? A. Each user defines their own retention policy B. Each customer defines its own retention policy C. Local governments define retention policy D. Cisco defines the retention policy Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages? A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations. B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications. C. Yes, only if everyone agrees. D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which statement about Development on the Webex platform is valid? A. only available for customer organizations B. pay per use C. Webex does not support developers D. free for everyone Correct Answer: B
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Exam By:Cisco Exam Code:400-101 Exam Name:CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam Related Certification(s):CCIE Routing & Switching
Maybe you are also interested in other Cisco exams.
Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.
Please see the exams for the process I listed below.
See! Step 1. Learn what you need to know.
How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 13%
Layer 3 Technologies 37%
VPN Technologies 13%
Infrastructure Security 5%
Infrastructure Services 12%
Evolving Technologies v1.1 10%
This is the first place I learned when I was learning the CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam network. The targets displayed in the screenshot are divided into sub-goals. Each subgoal has a set of skills listed in paragraphs.
This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.
See! Step 2. Find good study materials
You need very good learning materials.As a Cisco Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience.
Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.
Publisher Learning Guide
If you don’t have the ability to take an official Cisco course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.
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See! Step 3. Take notes
I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.
See! Step 4. Practice
Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.
See! Step 5. Manage exam time
When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.
If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.
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2019 Latest Cisco 400-101 Actual Free Exam Questions
QUESTION 1 Which two options about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two) A. In a PIM-DM network, routers that have no upstream neighbors prune back unwanted traffic B. PIM-DM initially floods multicast traffic throughout the network. C. PIM-DM supports only shared trees. D. PIM-DM uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic. E. PIM-DM cannot be used to build a shared distribution tree. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Refer to exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true? A. The Reported distance for the Successor is 128256 B. The metric installed into the route tabel is 4352 C. The metric installed into the route table is 126256 D. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the summary disappears? A. Regardless of the metric of the component route ,the metric of the summary is unchanged in order to keep stability B. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary metric is retained for stability / C. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the summary changes to the next-best composite metric D. If the component route previously dis not have the best composite metric, the summary metric is updated and updates are sent to peers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two commands should you enter to enable IP Source Guard with source IP and MAC address filtering? (Choose two) A. ip verify source tracking B. switchport port-security C. ip verify unicast source D. ip verify source E. ip verify source port-security Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 What is the correct multicast destination address for IGMPV2 leave-group messages? A. 224.0.0.2 B. 239.0.0.2 C. 224.0.0.1 D. 239.0.0.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What does the dis on a lan periodically transrnit to ensure that the IS-IS link-state database is accurate? A. IIH B. Csnp C. ISH D. LIP E. PSNPCCIERS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 How can you protect a device from Dos attacksdirected against its terminal and management ports? A. Enable AAA local authentication on the terminal and management ports B. Configure TCP keepalives on the terminal and management ports C. Reserve a terminal or management port with a highly restrictive ACL D. Configure the max-login-attempts command on the terminal and management ports Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which information is contained in an OSPF type7 not-so-stybby area NSSA extemal LSA? A. The paths and costs to reach other stub area border routers in the ospf routing domain. B. The external network address mask and cost to reach networks that are extemal to the OSPF NSSA including the default route. C. The address of routers that connect the current area to other areas and the cost to reach those routersCCIERS. D. Extemal net work address ,mask,and cost to reach each nework that is external to the ospf domain and only within the NSSA. E. The paths and costs to all OSPF NSSA areas that are external to the current area. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 How is the MRU for a multilink bundle determined? A. It is negotiated by LCP. B. It is manually configured on the multilink bundle. C. It is manually configured on all physical interfaces of a multilink bundle. D. It is negotiated by NCP. E. It is negotiated by IPCP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two) A. VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices. B. VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets. C. VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port. D. VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region. E. Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2 Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12 Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two) A. cluster list B. local preference C. AS path D. MED E. weight Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13 Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two) A. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment B. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications D. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane E. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS Correct Answer: AE
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Question No: 1
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimmer and dimDistrict dimension tables and the fact sales fact table. The dimmer table contains records for 70-463 dumps each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimmer table.
B. Partition the fact sales table on the district column.
C. Create a user district table that contains primary key columns from the dimmer and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the fact sales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C
Question No: 2
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project has been deployed to the SSIS catalog.
The project includes a project Connection Manager to connect to the data warehouse.
The SSIS catalog includes two Environments:
Development
QA
Each Environment defines a single Environment Variable named ConnectionString of type string. The value of each variable consists of the connection string to the development or QA data warehouses.
You need to be able to execute deployed packages by using either of the defined Environments.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 070-463 dumps
Answer:
Question No : 3
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Answer: A
Question No: 4
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Answer: C
Question No: 5
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
The log archival must be automated. 70-463 dumps
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an MSI file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flows to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dump error /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164
Question No : 18You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use? A. HOLDLOCK B. ROWLOCK C. XLOCK D. UPDLOCK E. TABLOCK Answer: E Question No : 19You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You write the following Transact-SQL query:
You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do? A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query. B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader. C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query. D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables. Answer: D Explanation: Question No : 20Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use? A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()) B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE() C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112) D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())) Answer: D Explanation: Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer: You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables. Question No : 21 Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do? A. Use the CAST function. B. Use the DATE data type. C. Use the FORMAT function. D. Use an appropriate collation. E. Use a user-defined table type. F. Use the VARBINARY data type. G. Use the DATETIME data type. H. Use the DATETIME2 data type. I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type. J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function. Answer: F
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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230
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QUESTION 16 Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17 Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19 Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 20 What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery 070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21 A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections? A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1 70-463 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23 What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24 From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning 070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum teamwork?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node? A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow 070-463 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode Answer: C QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture Answer: D QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture 070-463 vce Answer: A QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow Answer: B QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode 070-463 exam Answer: C QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A client-server architecture Answer: D QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command-line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture 070-463 dumps Answer: A QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scalable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organized and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customized applications to communicate with the workflow engine and QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process 070-463 pdf Answer: D QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy Answer: B QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component 070-463 vce Answer: A QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component Answer: B QUESTION 41 B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above 070-463 exam Answer: C QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real-time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above Answer: C
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External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.
External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.
Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.
Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.
MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, the Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.
The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).
Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html Additionally, items that have been crawled are turned into artifacts in this stage for inclusion within the search index. Link and URL information is stored in the link database and then processed and forwarded to the Analytics Processing component.
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QUESTION 1 A Linux administrator needs to switch from text mode to GUI. Which of the following runlevels will start the GUI by default? A. Runlevel 3 B. Runlevel 4 C. Runlevel 5 D. Runlevel 6 Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.linfo.org/runlevel_def.html
QUESTION 2 A system administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files should be watched by the agents? A. /var/log/audit/audit.log B. /var/log/kern.log C. /var/log/monitor D. /etc/rsyslog.conf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point /mnt/testvol and make the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish this task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An administrator needs to change the IP address on a server remotely. After updating the configuration files, a network restart is needed. However, the administrator fears that when the network connection drops, the network restart script will be killed before the new IP address has been set. Which of the following commands would prevent the script from being killed? A. nohup service network restart B. service network restart and C. echo “service network restart” | at now D. dg service network restart Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following configuration files should be modified to disable Ctrl-Alt-Del in Linux? A. /etc/inittab B. ~/.bash_profile C. /etc/securetty D. /etc/security/limits.conf Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.linuxtechi.com/disable-reboot-using-ctrl-alt-del-keys/
QUESTION 6 A new corporate policy states that Bluetooth should be disabled on all company laptops. Which of the following commands would disable the use of Bluetooth? A. echo “blacklist bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/blacklist-bluetooth B. echo “kill bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/kill-bluetooth C. echo “modprobe bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/modprbe-bluetooth D. echo “rmod bluetooth” > /etc/modprobe.d/rmmod-bluetooth Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the X11 system? A. X11 provides graphical display capabilities B. X11 provides command line capabilities C. X11 provides networking capabilities D. X11 provides telephony capabilities. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/X_Window_System
QUESTION 8 An administrator reviews the following configuration file provided by a DevOps engineer:
Which of the following would the application parsing this file MOST likely have to support? A. YAML B. AJAX C. JSON D. SOAP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A junior administrator of a physical server receives log messages indicating the out-of-memory killer has been active. All memory slots are in use on the motherboard, but additional disk space is available. Space has been allocated for a swap file. Which of the following should the administrator use to reduce the output of memory messages? A. free : swapoff / swapfile ; swapon -a B. mkswap /swapfile; swapon ? C. fallocate ? 2G /swapfile andand swapon ? D. echo “1” > /proc/meninfo ; swapon / swapfile Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A systems administrator needs to append output of ls -lha /opt command to the contents of a test.txt file. Which of the following commands will accomplish this? A. ls –lha /opt > test.txt B. ls –lha /opt C. ls –lha /opt >> test.txt D. ls –lha /opt
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Start preparing!Cisco 010-151
Exam By:Cisco Exam Code:010-151 Exam Name:Cisco Certified Technician Data Center Related Certification(s):CCT Data Center
Taking a Cisco certification exam “cold” is a good way to end up retaking a Cisco certification exam.
Please see the exams for the process I listed below.
You need to know
How do you know the content of the exam? The terrible answer is that you can’t do it at least. No matter how much you learn, you may encounter problems with any material you have never seen before. However, please be assured that there is only one place where you can find most of the topics to be discussed in the exam. Cisco publishes an exam description page for each exam they manage.
Data Center Basics 17%
Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware 25%
Cisco UCS and Cisco NX-OS software operation 25%
Service-Related Knowledge 33%
This became my study guide. I make sure I understand the details of each skill in the list.
Good study materials
You need very good learning materials.As a Cisco Certified Trainer, I have the experience of collecting and evaluating which resources are best for learners to make the most of their experience. This is my recommendations for Cisco learning materials:
Cisco Certified Curriculum
Written by experts in the field and tend to be consistent with the exam objectives. This does not mean that the Cisco Certified Technician Data Center exam questions will be written word by word directly from the content, but most of the exam’s concepts will be covered in detail in the exam content. Here, it is useful to list skills. I use the skill list as a guide to the content.
Publisher Learning Guide
If you don’t have the ability to take an official Cisco course, there are plenty of books to study as a guide.
Sanctioned “brain dumps”
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Take notes
I write down any content that might be suitable for the exam. The act of writing information fixes it in my short-term memory.
Practice
Practice is very important. It is very important to actually set up and manage the system for which the certification exam is to be conducted. Find some exam skills and get an idea of the actual situation of the exam.
Manage exam time
When you start the exam, the system will provide you with the total number of questions and available time. Do the calculations quickly (you will have something to write) and find out how long each problem is. Although I won’t spend time on every issue, I will put it in my mind to make sure I don’t run out of time.
If you spend a few minutes on the question and don’t have an answer, guess, mark it out and continue. If time permits, you can review the question back, but only if you are sure of the correct answer or if your guess is wrong.
Success in the 010-151 exam: Pass4itsure Q&As
QUESTION 1 Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose five.) A. blade server status B. hard drive status C. host OS boot status D. CPU status E. mezzanine card status F. memory DIMM status G. fan and power status Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Which three options are the minimum browser requirements to log into the Cisco CIMC GUI? (Choose three.) A. Java 1.6 or higher B. HTTP and HTTPS enabled C. Adobe Flash Player 10 or higher D. Internet Explorer version 10 E. Firefox 26.0 F. Adobe Shockwave Player 11 or higher Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which command syntax is correct to reset the admin password when the switch is in the kickstart prompt “switch(boot) #”? A. exec -> admin-password B. connect local-mgmt -> admin-password C. configure terminal -> admin-password D. connect nxos -> admin-password E. admin-password Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data? A. 10 Mb/s B. 100 Mb/s C. 1000 Mb/s D. 10000 Mb/s Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is the best place to see bootflash free space? A. A – Available Memory B. B – Total Memory C. C – Local Storage Information D. D – High Availability Details Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure? A. A – Chassis 1 B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs C. C – Chassis1 – Servers D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect? A. Amber B. Red C. Blinking amber D. Blinking red Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch? A. first-generation supervisor module B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2) C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E) D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which three troubleshooting procedures do you perform when there is no power to a Cisco UCS B250 M2 Blade Server? (Choose three.) A. Decommission and acknowledge the blade. B. Check the back of the blade to ensure that there is no damage to the connection that goes into chassis. C. Reseat the memory DIMMs. D. Check the CPU sockets for bent pins. E. Reseat the blade in the same slot in the chassis. F. Move the blade to another slot in the chassis. Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 11 Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.) A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module B. Virtual Ethernet Module C. Virtual Supervisor Module D. Virtual Memory Controller Module E. Virtual Network Module Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the name of this Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch? A. Cisco Nexus 3132Q B. Cisco Nexus 3172PQ C. Cisco Nexus 3524 D. Cisco Nexus 3016 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
Which item does A represent? A. Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers B. Virtual Interface Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers C. mLOM for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers D. Virtual Emulex Adapter Card for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers E. SuperCap module for Cisco UCS B420 M3 Blade Servers Correct Answer: C
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