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A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk Correct Answer: C If the etherchannel was configured with mode “auto”, it was using PagP, so, we need to configure the other switch with “desirable” mode. PagP modes: auto | Desirable LACP modes: active | pasive
QUESTION 3 A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically? A. enable dynamic MAC address learning B. implement static MAC addressing. C. enable sticky MAC addressing D. implement auto MAC address learning Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What is the function of a server? A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain. B. It provides shared applications to end users. C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices. D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? A. TTL B. MAC address forwarding C. Collision avoidance D. Port blocking Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 9 Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? A. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries B. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output? A. show ip route B. show cdp neighbor C. show ip interface D. show interface Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption? A. ISATAP B. GRE over iPsec C. iPsec over ISATAP D. GRE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
A. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2 B. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.2.0/24 network C. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network D. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
Which path is used by the router for internet traffic ? A. 209.165.200.0/27 B. 10.10.10.0/28 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.10.13.0/24 Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP A company is building a Power Apps Portal. You need to select page components. Which components should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct requirements. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You plan to send an email notification to a user when a new file is placed in a specific folder in OneDrive for Business. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 You create a business rule on the contact entity to enforce the requirement that users must enter either a telephone number, fax number, or an email when creating a new record. The company decides to remove the fax number from the condition. You need to update the business rule. What are two ways of achieving the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Save a copy of the rule and change the condition. Deactivate and delete the original rule. B. Deactivate the business rule and change the condition. C. Take a snapshot of the business rule and change the condition. D. Change the condition and activate the change. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-rules
QUESTION 5 A company uses Microsoft 365, SharePoint Online, and Dynamics 365 Sales. You need to recommend tools to build a solution that meets the following requirements: 1. Synchronize data daily from an external Microsoft SQL Server instance. 2. Send an out-of-the box report automatically to specific company executives. 3. Ensure that opportunities over a specified amount are approved by a sales manager. Which two tools or components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Microsoft Excel B. Microsoft Word C. Power BI D. Common Data Service E. Power Automate Correct Answer: DE Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/data-integrator https://www.powerobjects.com/blog/2019/04/05/flow-approval-process/
QUESTION 6 A large retail company implements Power Apps, Microsoft Flow, and the Common Data Service. The board of directors is asking whether users are finding value in the technology. The company would like to measure and report usage of the software. You need to recommend a tool to determine software usage. What should you recommend? A. Microsoft Intune B. Azure Stream Analytics C. Power Platform Analytics D. Dynamics 365 Product Insights Correct Answer: C The Power Platform Analytics Usage report is the default report seen by the logged-in environment admin. It provides total app launches and daily active users across all apps in the environment. Admins can filter the view with attributes like device platform, player version, country, state, and city. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/analytics-powerapps
QUESTION 8 A carpet cleaning company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The process for entering customer information during onsite sales calls is very complicated. The company wants a the simplified screen that allows salespeople to capture the customer name, phone number, and other information while speaking to the customer. You need to recommend a solution that works on various types of mobile devices. What should you recommend? A. Common Data Service B. Power Automate C. AI Builder D. Canvas app E. Power BI Correct Answer: D Reference: https://powerapps.microsoft.com/en-us/build-powerapps/
QUESTION 9 A company builds and sells residential apartments. The company uses Dynamics 365 Sales to manage sales opportunities. Management must receive notifications on their mobile devices when sales opportunities are created. You need to select recommend Power Platform components to address the requirements. Which two components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each selection is worth one point. A. Common Data Service connector B. Power BI C. Power Automate D. AI Builder Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.powerobjects.com/blog/2019/04/05/flow-approval-process/
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You are creating a model-driven Power Apps app. You want to ensure that the app can be used by individuals who have vision impairments. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Yes You can use keyboard shortcuts in PowerApps. Keyboard shortcuts give you an alternate way to do common tasks instead of using your mouse or tapping with your finger. They help in the seamless navigation of the interface. Box 2: No The following software combinations are the supported recommendations for consuming PowerApps with a screen reader: Windows: Microsoft Edge / Narrator macOS: Safari / VoiceOver Android: PowerApps app / Talkback iOS: PowerApps app / VoiceOver Box 3: Yes Users who have vision, hearing, or other impairments can use your canvas app more easily and successfully if you consider accessibility as you design how the app looks and behaves. If you\\’re not sure how to make your app more accessible, you can run the Accessibility checker in PowerApps Studio. This tool not only finds potential accessibility issues but also explains why each might be a potential problem for users who have a specific disability and offers suggestions on how to resolve each issue. The Accessibility checker detects screen-reader and keyboard issues for you, and you can find information about how to fix color-contrast issues by using accessible colors. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/user/keyboard-shortcuts https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/user/screen-reader https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/accessibility-checker
QUESTION 11 You plan to use Power Automate to perform data-management tasks when users interact with sales opportunities in Dynamics 365. You need to identify the three types of events that can generate a trigger for the tasks. Which three types of events should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. when a record is displayed in a view B. when a record is deleted C. when a record is created D. when a record is updated E. when a record is read Correct Answer: BCD Triggers like When a record is created, When a record is updated, and When a record is deleted initiate your flow within a few minutes of the event occurring. In rare cases, your flow can take up to 2 hours to trigger. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/connection-dynamics365
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT A company needs to create several workflows and applications to help streamline its sales operations. You need to determine which applications are appropriate for given scenarios. Which applications should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP You plan to use Microsoft Flow to monitor what people are saying about your company\\’s products. You store the feedback for research and development purposes. You need to recommend Flow components to use for the solution. To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct requirements. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place
Box 1: Trigger A trigger is something that triggers or starts the workflow. It could be a new file uploaded to a document library, a new item created in the list or an email sent to your Inbox – something that will start (kick-off the workflow). There are two types of triggers: 1. The automatic trigger is pre-programmed into the workflow based on a certain rule (i.e. new document or item created, email sent, etc.) 2. A manual Trigger is a trigger initiated by a user. Unlike with the automatic trigger above, the workflow will only start when initiated manually by the end-user (for example, from the Document Library for a selected file). The manual trigger is only supported for certain types of workflows (i.e. Get feedback from your manager for the selected file) Box 2: action An action is something that occurs as a result of the workflow. Box 3: expression Sometimes users just need to do basic operations like getting the current time, adding numbers together, or replacing a part of a string of text. That\\’s possible inline in any flow action. Microsoft Flow leverages the same Workflow Definition The language used by Azure Logic apps. For new users who are unfamiliar with the expression language, there is an inline help experience that shows how to use each expression as they build out their flow. Box 4: flow type There are four different Flow types that you can choose from when starting out. You can create a scheduled flow, automated flow, instant flow, or a business process flow. Reference: https://sharepointmaven.com/3-major-components-microsoft-flow/ https://www.avepoint.com/blog/office-365/office-365-automation/ https://flow.microsoft.com/de-de/blog/use-expressions-in-actions/
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QUESTION 1 Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN secure extensible network provides a single pane of glass approach to network monitoring and configuration? A. APIC-EM B. vSmart C. vManage D. vBond Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 An engineer wants to track tunnel characteristics within a SLA-based policy for convergence. Which policy configuration will achieve this goal? A. App-route policy B. VPN membership policy C. Control policy D. Data policy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which two image formats are supported for controller codes? (Choose two.) A. .nxos B. .qcow2 C. .ova D. .bin E. Tgz Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which two services are critical for zero touch provisioning on-boarding? (Choose two ) A. SNMP B. DNS C. DHCP D. AAA E. EMAIL Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
What does the BFD value of 8 represent? A. number of BFD sessions B. hello timer of BFD session C. poll-interval of BFD session . D. dead timer of BFD session Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which pathway under Monitor > Network > Select Device is used to verify service insertion configuration? A. Real Time B. System Status C. ACL Logs D. Events Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct templates on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 In an AWS cloud, which feature provision WAN Edge routers automatically in Cisco SD-WAN? A. Cloud app B. Cloud OnRamp C. vAnalytics D. Network Designer Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 2 While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work? A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been called to configure the four PE devices in order to enable full communication among the four CE devices connected to them. While starting to configure, he experienced a connectivity issue. Which two tasks should the engineer perform in order to begin the process correctly? (Choose two.) A. Configure PE3 to export route-targets 100:1 and 200:2. B. Configure PE3 to import route-targets 100:1 and 200:2. C. Configure PE4 to import route-targets 101:1 and 202:2. D. Configure PE2 to export route-targets 300:3 and 400:4. E. Configure PE1 to import route-targets 300:3 and 400:4. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the EVPN components from the left onto the correct planes on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5 Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.) A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4. B. They are represented as 32-bit values C. They are represented as 64-bit values. D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router. E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this output is true? A. The router IP 192.168.1.2 sent an implicit null, and the output is from the penultimate LSR. B. The adjacent router is the egress LSR and has mpls ldp explicit-null configured. C. The adjacent LSR router configured mpls label range 0. D. The zero in the second column is the normal behavior of an egress router LSR. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the result of this configuration? A. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as E1 routes. B. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as E2 routes. C. R1 mutually redistributes routes between BGP 65001 and the OSPF process of VRF custabc. D. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as OIA routes. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured, but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem? A. Change the source IP address. B. Add the IP address to the VRF table. C. Remove the VRF from the interface. D. Configure static routes for the VRF. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html
QUESTION 10 An engineer is troubleshooting an EoMPLS circuit on a Cisco IOS XR router interface that removes a VLAN from the distribution layer. Which configuration should the engineer apply in order to accomplish the task? A. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 B. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 2/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 D. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag translate 1-to-1 dot1ad 10 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 An engineer is troubleshooting AToM on an IOS XE router and receives an error when creating the xconnect. Which command does he need to complete to create the xconnect in AToM? A. encapsulation mpls B. encapsulation 12tpv3 C. protocol 12tpv3 D. protocol none Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this command is true? A. It must be configured on each PE router to enable the PE routers to receive multicast traffic for this particular MVRF. B. It is used to set the designated router on a link using PIM-SM. C. It must be configured on the PE and CE router to enable MP-BGP to send labels for CSC. D. It is used to set the router that will server as the root bridge for STP. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/lsmmldp.html
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Overview: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Benefits of Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification
Comparison of Azure with other cloud platforms such as AWS and Google Cloud
How to Prepare for Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Certification
Pass4itsure Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Answer the most interesting questions about Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
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The exam corresponding to the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification is AZ-900 :Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Before preparing for the AZ-900 exam, it is important to have a full understanding of these modules. Practice exams are essential to passing the exam!
Overview: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Azure Fundamentals certification is suitable for candidates who are just starting to use cloud-based solutions and services or who are new to Azure.
Required exams: AZ-900 measures your ability to understand the following concepts: cloud concepts; core Azure services; security, privacy, compliance, and trust; and Azure pricing and support.Is a 60-minute evaluation.
Below is more about the exam you might want to know:
Describe cloud concepts (15-20%)
Describe core Azure services (30-35%)
Describe security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
Describe Azure pricing Service Level Agreements, and Lifecycles (20-25%)
Note! The content of the AZ-900 exam will be updated on September 15, 2020
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Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certificates are universally accepted, so they can help you improve your career while working in any organization around the world. If you want to work in an exciting new job and learn more about cloud computing, then the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification may be an important first step.
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Azure is the second most popular cloud platform after Amazon Web Services (AWS).
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QUESTION 4 You are asked to write an application that interacts directly with the internal APIs belonging to rpd. Which statement is true in this scenario? A. You must write the application using the XML APIs B. You must write the application using the REST APIs C. You must write the application using the JET APIs D. You must write the application using the YANG APIs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 In a Python commit script, which object provides the post-inheritance candidate configuration? A. Commit-Script-Input B. Junos_Configuration C. Candidate_Configuration D. Checkout_Configuration Correct Answer: B Python automation scripts import the Junos_Context dictionary when the script must access information about the script execution environment. The Junos_Configuration object is required when the commit script must read and manipulate the post-inheritance candidate configuration. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/reference/general/junos-script-automation-boilerplate-commit-scripts.html
QUESTION 6 What is correctly formatted JSON string?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which data serialization method does the Junos CLI use to communicate with the Junos management process (mgd)? A. JSON B. gRPC C. XML D. YAML Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit: You need to programmatically extract interface information using PyEZ from your MX Series device. You log in and use the show interfaces terse | display xml rpc command and see the information shown in the exhibit. What is the correct PyEZ syntax to accomplish this task?
A. dev.rpc.get-interface-information() B. dev.rpc.get_interface_information(terse=True) C. dev.rpc.get-interface-information(terse=True) D. dev.rpc.get_interface_information() Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 With which three processes does the JET service process communicate? (Choose three) A. snmpd B. ancpd C. cosd D. mgd E. rpd Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 11 Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:
Your manager asks you to troubleshoot an Ansible problem when logging into a Junos device. You notice the Ansible play in question has a vars_files argument that calls the variables.yml entry file. The contents of that file are displayed in the exhibit. What is happening in this scenario? A. The file is an SSH key B. The variables.yml file is not actually a YAML file C. The file is encrypted with ansible-vault D. The file is encrypted with ansible Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos-ansible1.0/topics/task/configuration/junos-ansibleauthenticating-users.html
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QUESTION 1 The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict PII security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used? A. Avoid B. Mitigate C. Transfer D. Accept Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials? A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication. B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage. C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange. D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control. E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation. Correct Answer: E A SaaS application that has a federation server within the customer\\’s network that interfaces with the customer\\’s own enterprise user-directory service can provide single sign-on authentication. This federation server has a trust relationship with a corresponding federation server located within the SaaS provider\\’s network. Single sign-on will mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
QUESTION 3 Within the past six months, a company has experienced a series of attacks directed at various collaboration tools. Additionally, sensitive information was compromised during a recent security breach of a remote access session from an unsecure site. As a result, the company is requiring all collaboration tools to comply with the following: Secure messaging between internal users using digital signatures Secure sites for video-conferencing sessions Presence information for all office employees Restriction of certain types of messages to be allowed into the network. Which of the following applications must be configured to meet the new requirements? (Select TWO.) A. Remote desktop Latest CAS-003 Dumps | CAS-003 VCE Dumps | CAS-003 Braindumps 2 / 9 https://www.lead4pass.com/cas-003.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CAS-003 PDF and VCE dumps Download B. VoIP C. Remote assistance D. Email E. Instant messaging F. Social media websites Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4 An architect was recently hired by a power utility to increase the security posture of the company\\’s power generation and distribution sites. Upon review, the architect identifies legacy hardware with highly vulnerable and unsupported software driving critical operations. These systems must exchange data with each other, be highly synchronized, and pull from the Internet time sources. Which of the following architectural decisions would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful attack without harming operational capability? (Choose two.) A. Isolate the systems on their own network B. Install a firewall and IDS between systems and the LAN C. Employ own stratum-0 and stratum-1 NTP servers D. Upgrade the software on critical systems E. Configure the systems to use government-hosted NTP servers Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation? A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products. B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete. C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO. D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly. Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 A requirement states that an application must be restored within six hours. Which of the following should be included in the SLA to satisfy this requirement? A. MTTR B. RPO C. ROI D. RTO Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A cloud administrator for an ISP identified a vulnerability in the software that controls all the firewall rules for a geographic area. To ensure the software upgrade is properly tested, approved, and applied, which of the following processes should the administrator follow? A. Configuration management B. Incident management C. Resource management D. Change management Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A company is migrating its e-commerce platform to a cloud service provider. The e-commerce site has a significant number of images. Which of the following is the BEST storage type for storing the images? A. Object B. Cold C. File D. Block Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company has been running tests on a newly developed algorithm to increase the responsiveness of the application. Latest CLO-002 Dumps | CLO-002 Practice Test | CLO-002 Exam Questions 2 / 7 https://www.lead4pass.com/clo-002.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CLO-002 PDF and VCE dumps Download The company\\’s monthly bills for the testing have been much higher than expected. Which of the following documents should the company examine FIRST? A. Memory report B. Compute report C. Network report D. Storage report Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A cloud administrator configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server remotely. Which of the following BEST describes the type of policy being used? A. Audit B. Authorization C. Hardening D. Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 1 An investigation showed a worm was introduced from an engineer\\’s laptop. It was determined the company does not provide engineers with company-owned laptops, which would be subject to company policy and technical controls. Which of the following would be the MOST secure control implement? A. Deploy HIDS on all engineer-provided laptops, and put a new router in the management network. B. Implement role-based group policies on the management network for client access. C. Utilize a jump box that is only allowed to connect to clients from the management network. D. Deploy a company-wide approved engineering workstation for management access. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A security analyst is creating baseline system images to remediate vulnerabilities found in different operating systems. Each image needs to be scanned before it is deployed. The security analyst must ensure the configurations match industry standard benchmarks and the process can be repeated frequently. Which of the following vulnerability options would BEST create the process requirements? A. Utilizing an operating system SCAP plugin B. Utilizing an authorized credential scan C. Utilizing a non-credential scan D. Utilizing a known malware plugin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts B. Disable the user accounts C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 A cybersecurity analyst traced the source of an attack to compromised user credentials. Log analysis revealed that the attacker successfully authenticated from an unauthorized foreign country. Management asked the security analyst to research and implement a solution to help mitigate attacks based on compromised passwords. Which of the following should the analyst implement? A. Self-service password reset B. Single sign-on C. Context-based authentication D. Password complexity Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 The human resources division is moving all of its applications to an IaaS cloud. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has asked the security architect to design the environment securely to prevent the IaaS provider from accessing its data-atrest and data-in-transit within the infrastructure. Which of the following security controls should the security architect recommend? A. Implement a non-data breach agreement B. Ensure all backups are remote outside the control of the IaaS provider C. Ensure all of the IaaS provider\\’s workforce passes stringent background checks D. Render data unreadable through the use of appropriate tools and techniques Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 1 An organization allows clients to retrieve information on earthquake events. This is a description of which of the following classifications? A. XaaS B. DaaS C. CaaS D. SaaS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following authentication types is being required when a user must swipe a key card and then enter a password before being allowed access to the server room? A. Multi-factor authentication B. Single sign-on C. Biometric authentication D. Single-factor authentication Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 After deploying multiple copies of database servers, data scrambling is started on them to anonymize user data. A few minutes later, the systems administrator receives multiple complaints regarding the performance of other VMs. CPU and memory have been eliminated as possible bottlenecks. Which of the following should be verified NEXT as a possible bottleneck? A. Storage array B. Database drivers C. Hardware load balancer D. Internet connection speed Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A company has just completed a security audit and received initial results from the auditor. The results show that the ethical hacker was able to gain access to the company servers by exploiting non-hardened VMs and hosts as guests and administrators. Which of the following should be implemented to harden the environment? (Select two.) A. Discretionary access controls B. Disable unnecessary accounts C. Change default passwords D. Install antivirus software E. Role-based access controls Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A security administrator wants to automate the implementation of network-based ACLs for services deployed within the company VPC. The security administrator is mostly concerned with intra-VPN separation to prevent unauthorized communication between cloud deployed services within the VPC. Which of the following should the security administrator implement? A. Include a list of the firewall rules in the orchestration script B. Use the cloud API to deploy and configure anti-malware services C. Configure the appropriate IDS rules using the cloud portal D. Write custom scripts to deploy a network ACL between the VPC and the company\\’s network Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 1 Which command is used to add OpenSSH private keys to a running ssh-agent instance? (Specify the file name only without any path.) A. ssh-add Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is true about groups in a Linux system? (Choose two correct answers.) A. Each user may be a member of several groups. However, only one group is the user\\’s primary group. B. Groups may have a password that allows users to join that group temporarily. C. Each user can only be a member of one group at a time. D. Group memberships are optional such that there may be users that do not belong to any group. E. Groups can be nested meaning that one group can be a member of another group. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file? A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root. B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow. C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow. D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The presence of what file will temporarily prevent all users except root from logging into the system? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.) A. /etc/nologin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which parameter must be passed to ifconfig to activate a previously inactive network interface? (Specify the parameter only without any command, path or additional options) A. up Correct Answer: A
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Microsoft MB-330 Practice Exam question 1-13
QUESTION 1 You are the materials manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for setting up the ABC classification of all items as follows: 1. Class A materials represent 70 percent of the material value. 2. Class B materials represent 20 percent of the material value. 3. Class C materials represent 10 percent of the material value but are the most commonly used. You need to assign an ABC classification value model to all items using those values. What should you do? A. Run the ABC classification report B. Run the ABC classification periodic task to update the value model for all items C. Manually update the Value classification on the Released product record D. Run the ABC classification periodic task to update the revenue model for all items Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You are the product manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for managing product compliance standards and reporting. Chemical product, C0001 can be sold in all parts of the United States except for the state of California. You need to set up these compliance requirements for C0001. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 Inventory in a warehouse is assigned to an inventory status of available. You need to set up an inventory status for damaged items so that they are not sold to customers. Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT A company plans to stock new items and value those items by using FIFO principle. The company has multiple sites set up. There are multiple warehouses for each site. You must be able to view the value and quantity of these items at each warehouse. You need to apply FIFO costing per warehouse. How should you complete the costing setup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 A company is implementing sales order functionality in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company has a business requirement to fulfill sales orders by using direct delivery. You need to enter a direct delivery sales order so that a purchase order is automatically created. What should you do after you enter the sales order and lines? A. Set the ship complete toggle to On and confirm the order on the sales order header. B. Select automatic and confirm the sales order on the line level setup tab in the reservation field. C. Change the customer\\’s address to the vendor\\’s direct delivery address and confirm the sales order. D. Select the direct delivery option under the sales order action pane and complete the form. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company plans to simplify interactions between purchasing department employees and vendors. You need to ensure that employees are redirected to a vendor\\’s online store to select items for inclusion on purchase requisitions. Solution: Create a retail product catalog. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/supply-chain/procurement/set-up-external-catalog-forpunchout
QUESTION 7 An employee at a company needs to lay out the various component builds for bicycles. You need to identify which constraints the employee should use to set up the bicycles. Which two types of constraints achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. table constraints that are used generically among product configuration models B. expression constraints that are used generically among product configuration models C. expression constraints that are unique to each product configuration model D. table constraints that are always unique to each product configuration model Correct Answer: AC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/pim/expression-constraintstable-constraints-product-configuration-models
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is implementing inventory management in Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. The company needs to block inventory and ensure that physical inventory will not be reserved by other outbound transactions. You need to select the appropriate option to block the inventory in the system. Solution: Select the full blocking option in the item sampling page. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/inventory/inventoryblocking
QUESTION 9 A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. A customer returns a product that is defective for a replacement. You need to process the return order. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a return of type Credit Only B. Set the deadline date according to the company policy C. Create a credit note for the replaced product D. Set the delivery address to the customer\\’s address in the return order E. Create a return of type Physical Return F. Set the deadline date to the date the customer returns the defective product G. Set the delivery address to the company warehouse in the return order Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 10 You need to implement location directives in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Which objects should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct permissions. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance. The finance department processes royalty claims using the accounts payable module. You need to pass the claims to the accounts payable group for payment. Which three events will occur? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. A Royalty accrual journal posting reverses the previous interim postings for accrual and expense amounts. B. A credit is posted to the vendor\\’s payable account. C. A vendor invoice for the royalty payment is set to draft. D. A new vendor invoice for the royalty is created and posted. E. A hold is put on the amounts held in the royalty fees account. Correct Answer: ABD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/accounts-payable/royalty-contract
QUESTION 12 A company plans to use warehouse management and dock appointment scheduling in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to configure the system. Which configuration options should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration options to the correct requirements. Each configuration option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer
QUESTION 13 A company manufactures wood furniture. Cabinets can be purchased with different wood finishes including oak and maple. You need to configure a product attribute to characterize the types of cabinet finishes. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
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