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QUESTION 1
Which parameter should be set to prevent H.323 endpoints from registering to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server automatically?
A. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Discover to off.
B. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Registration to off.
C. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Allow List, and set Auto Registration to off.
D. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Configuration, and set Auto Registration to off.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. Endpoints can make calls to unknown IP addresses without the VCS querying any neighbors.
B. If the VCS receives a call to an unknown IP address, it queries its neighbors for the remote address and if permitted, it routes the call through the neighbor.
C. Endpoints that are registered directly to the VCS can call only an IP address of a system that is also registered directly to that VCS.
D. Dialing by IP address is not supported on VCS.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
A local gateway is registered to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server with a prefix of 7. The administrator wants to stop calls from outside the organization being routed through it. Which CPL configuration accomplishes this goal?
A.
B.
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which type of search message appears in the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server search history page when it receives a H.323 call from a RAS-enabled endpoint that originates from an external zone?
A. ARQ
B. SETUP
C. LRQ
D. INVITE
E. OPTIONS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Widgets.com’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Variable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 8
Which two statements about configuring mobile and remote access on Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The traversal server zone on Expressway-C must have a TLS verify subject name configured.
B. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Force encrypted.
C. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
D. The traversal client zone on Expressway-C Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
E. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone must be set to SIP TLS with TLS verify mode set to On.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which configuration does Cisco recommend for the peer address on the Expressway-C secure traversal zone when the Expressway-E has one NIC enabled?
A. Expressway-E internal IP address
B. Expressway-E external IP address
C. Expressway-E internal FQDN
D. Expressway-E external FQDN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 16
What is the standard Layer 3 DSCP media packet value that should be set for Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. CS3 (24)
B. EF (46)
C. AF41 (34)
D. CS4 (32)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
When you configure QoS on VCS, which settings do you apply if traffic through the VCS should be tagged with DSCP AF41?
A. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 32.
B. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 34.
C. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 34.
D. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 32.
E. Set QoS mode to ToS and tag value to 32.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What is the default DSCP/PHB for video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
The administrator at Company X is getting user reports of inconsistent quality on video calls between endpoints registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The administrator runs a wire trace while a video call is taking place and sees that the packets are not set to AF41 for desktop video as they should be. Where should the administrator look next to confirm that the correct DSCP markings are being set?
A. on the MGCP router at the edge of both networks
B. the service parameters in the VCS Control
C. the QoS service parameter in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. on the actual Cisco phone itself because the DSCP setting is not part of its configuration file downloaded at registration
E. The setting cannot be changed for video endpoints that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but only when they are registered to the VCS Control.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 1
When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with ‘deduplication’ enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) without ‘deduplication’ enabled.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only

Correct Answer: C

352-001

QUESTION 5
Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by installing and correctly configuring the ‘Cascade Connector’ agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named “Round-trip time”.
C. Use the View search box and enter “round”.
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both ingress and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate that Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP

Correct Answer: A

117-202

QUESTION 11
What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group Type.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Cascade Profiler’s Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade to report on which of the followinG. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could be becausE. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and Cascade Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in “passthru” mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade Pilot to connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 15
What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when you ‘view members’ of this ‘Undefined’ group’.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.

Correct Answer: B

200-101

QUESTION 16
How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can be determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and Cascade will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to detect security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested application delivery paths.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you click the ‘show advanced settings’ checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 18
Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the policy can treat as deviation from normal behavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the “Server Delay” column but shows no value for “Server Delay” in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure “Server Delay” and not functioning correctly.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 20
Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.

Correct Answer: C

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