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QUESTION NO: 1
An enterprise bean calls the javax.naming.Context.rebind method to modify the value associated with an environment entry. What is the expected behavior?
A. A javax.naming.OperationNotSupportedException is thrown.
B. The value is successfully modified but the new value is only available to new instances of the enterprise bean.
C. The value is successfully modified and the new value is available to all instances of the enterprise bean.
D. The value is successfully modified but the new value is only available after server restart.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Given:
A bean calls setRollbackOnly on the EJBContext interface within a transactional business method.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The container will ensure that the transaction will never commit.
B. The bean must have started the current transaction for this to be legal.
C. The bean must have bean-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
D. The bean must have container-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
E. The transaction timeout is immediately disabled.
Answer: A,D QUESTION NO: 3

Which two statements about EJB roles and their security responsibilities are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Deployer assigns principals to the security roles defined in an EJB application.
B. The Bean Provider defines the security role references used by an enterprise bean.
C. The Application Assembler declares the principals used by the security roles.
D. The System Administrator creates security roles for an EJB application.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Given:
A stateful session bean allocates resources in the ejbCreate method and releases the resources in the ejbRemove method.
When will this resource release strategy fail?

A. after a transaction rollback
B. after a system exception is thrown from the instance’s method to the container
C. after a timeout of client inactivity while the instance is in the active state
D. after normal completion of a transaction
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which is a responsibility of the EJB 2.0 container, with respect to session beans?
A. invoking the home interface create method
B. invoking the setSessionContext method
C. implementing an afterBegin method, if declared in the bean’s remote interface
D. implementing a class that implements javax.ejb.SessionBean

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Given this session bean code:
4.
public void ejbActivate() {

5.
// method is empty

6.
}
Which two are guaranteed to be true? (Choose two.)
A. There is no requirement that the bean expose a local client view.
B. A client cannot invoke this method.
C. This method is contained in a final class.
D. All of the instance variables in this class are serializable.
E. This is not a stateful session bean.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 7
Which statement is true about BOTH stateful session beans and stateless session beans?
A. The container passivates them using the ejbPassivate / ejbActivate methods.
B. Any bean instance must be able to handle concurrent invocations from different threads.
C. A bean with bean-managed transactions must commit or roll back any transaction before returning from a business method.
D. Bean instances are not required to survive container crashes.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8

Who must ensure that a bean’s environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. EJB Container Provider
B. System Administrator
C. Bean Provider
D. Deployer
E. EJB Server Provider
F. Application Assembler
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
Given:
A stateful session bean allocates resources in the ejbCreate method and releases the resources in the ejbRemove method.
When will this resource release strategy fail?
A. after a timeout of client inactivity while the instance is in the active state
B. after a transaction rollback
C. after a system exception is thrown from the instance’s method to the container
D. after normal completion of a transaction
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
Which method can be found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. remove(Object primaryKey)
B. remove(Handle handle)
C. getEJBMetaData()
D. getHomeHandle()
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement is correct when a container throws a javax.transaction.TransactionRequiredException?
A. The container throws this exception to a local client to indicate a transaction attribute violation.
B. The container throws this exception to a remote client to indicate a transaction attribute violation.
C. The container throws this exception to a remote client to indicate a transaction rollback.
D. The container throws this exception to a local client to indicate a transaction rollback.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the deployment descriptor tags on their correct purpose.

Answer: QUESTION NO: 13
Which is a valid implementation of a message-driven bean’s ejbCreate method?
A. public void ejbCreate() throws javax.ejb.CreateException {}
B. public void ejbCreate() { return; }
C. public javax.ejb.MessageDrivenBean ejbCreate() {}
D. public void ejbCreate(javax.jms.Message message) {}
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14
Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class? (Choose two.)
A. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent fields.
B. Declare variables for all persistent fields.
C. Provide constructors to initialize the CMP fields.
D. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
E. Implement ejbCreate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create<METHOD> methods.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 15
Which two are requirements for a session bean’s local component interface? (Choose two.)
A. The Bean Provider must define one or more create<METHOD> methods.
B. Method arguments and return types must follow the rules for RMI/IIOP.
C. The interface must extend the javax.ejb.EJBObject interface.
D. Each business method must have a matching method in the session bean’s class.
E. All methods’ throws clauses must not include the java.rmi.RemoteException.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EJB container is not required to support publishing home references in a CORBA CosNaming service.
B. The EJB container must allow IIOP invocations on remote component and home interfaces.
C. The EJB container must allow enterprise beans deployed in the same enterprise archive to access one another directly without having to go through home or remote interfaces.
D. The EJB container must not allow the same enterprise bean to be deployed multiple times.
E. The EJB container must implement the resource manager connection factory classes for resource managers configured with the container.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 17
Given:
4.
first = home.create();

5.
second = home.create();

6.
result = first.isIdentical(second);
Assume home is a valid reference to a session object’s home interface, and all values have been properly declared.
Which two statements are true about the value of result? (Choose two.)
A. If both beans are stateful, the value of result cannot be determined until runtime.
B. If both beans are stateful, result is always true.
C. If both beans are stateless, the value of result cannot be determined until runtime.
D. If both beans are stateful, result is always false.
E. If both beans are stateless, result is always true.
F. If both beans are stateless, result is always false.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 18
Given the methods:
setSessionContext ejbCreate ejbRemove afterBegin
Which two operations are allowed in ALL of the methods, given a stateful session bean with container-managed transaction demarcation? (Choose two.)
A. a call to SessionContext method getEJBHome
B. access to an enterprise bean
C. a call to SessionContext method isCallerInRole
D. JNDI access to environment entries
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 19
Which two can be found in an entity bean’s home interface? (Choose two.)
A. the ejbCreate method declaration
B. create<METHOD> method declarations
C. the findByPrimaryKey method declaration
D. persistent field accessor method declarations
E. ejbSelect<METHOD> method declarations
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the CMR:

and the object bi-directional relations: order1 references statement1 order2 references statement2
After executing: order1.setStatement(order2.getStatement());
which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. order2 references statement1.
B. The order reference of statement2 is null.
C. order1 references statement1.
D. order1 references statement2.

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QUESTION NO: 1

You need to store a Java long primitive attribute, called customerOID, into the session scope. Which two code snippets allow you to insert this value into the session? (Choose two.)
A. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setAttribute(“customerOID”, new Long(customerOID));

B. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setLongAttribute(“customerOID”, new Long(customerOID));

C. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setAttribute(“customerOID”, customerOID); D. long
customerOID = 47L; session.setNumericAttribute(“customerOID”, new
Long(customerOID)); E. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setLongAttribute(“customerOID”, customerOID);

F. long customerOID = 47L; . session.setNumericAttribute(“customerOID”, customerOID);

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2
A developer for the company web site has been told that users may turn off cookie support in their browsers. What must the developer do to ensure that these customers can still use the web application?
A. The developer must ensure that every URL is properly encoded using the appropriate URL rewriting APIs.
B. The developer must provide an alternate mechanism for managing sessions and abandon the HttpSession mechanism entirely.
C. The developer can ignore this issue. Web containers are required to support automatic URL rewriting when cookies are not supported.
D. The developer must add the string id=<sessionid> to the end of every URL to ensure that the conversation with the browser can continue.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Your web application requires the adding and deleting of many session attributes during a complex use case. A bug report has come in that indicates that an important session attribute is being deleted too soon and a NullPointerException is being thrown several interactions after the fact. You have decided to create a session event listener that will log when attributes are being deleted so you can track down when the attribute is erroneously being deleted.
Which listener class will accomplish this debugging goal?
A. Create an HttpSessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeDeleted method and log the attribute name using the getName method on the event object.
B. Create an HttpSessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeRemoved method and log the attribute name using the getName method on the event object.
C. Create an SessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeRemoved method and log the attribute name using the getAttributeName method on the event object.
D. Create an SessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeDeleted method and log the attribute name using the getAttributeName method on the event object.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
As a convenience feature, your web pages include an Ajax request every five minutes to a special servlet that monitors the age of the user’s session. The client-side JavaScript that handles the Ajax callback displays a message on the screen as the session ages. The Ajax call does NOT pass any cookies, but it passes the session ID in a request parameter called sessionID. In addition, assume that your webapp keeps a hashmap of session objects by the ID. Here is a partial implementation of this servlet:
10.
public class SessionAgeServlet extends HttpServlet {

11.
public void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse) throws IOException {

12.
String sessionID = request.getParameter(“sessionID”);

13.
HttpSession session = getSession(sessionID);

14.
long age = // your code here

15.
response.getWriter().print(age);

16.
} … // more code here
47. }
Which code snippet on line 14, will determine the age of the session?
A. session.getMaxInactiveInterval();
B. session.getLastAccessed().getTime() – session.getCreationTime().getTime();
C. session.getLastAccessedTime().getTime() – session.getCreationTime().getTime();
D. session.getLastAccessed() – session.getCreationTime();
E. session.getMaxInactiveInterval() – session.getCreationTime();
F. session.getLastAccessedTime() – session.getCreationTime();
Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 5
Which statement is true about web container session management?
A. Access to session-scoped attributes is guaranteed to be thread-safe by the web container.
B. To activate URL rewriting, the developer must use the HttpServletResponse.setURLRewriting method.
C. If the web application uses HTTPS, then the web container may use the data on the HTTPS request stream to identify the client.
D. The JSESSIONID cookie is stored permanently on the client so that a user may return to the web application and the web container will rejoin that session.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
One of the use cases in your web application uses many session-scoped attributes. At the end of
the use case, you want to clear out this set of attributes from the session object.
Assume that this static variable holds this set of attribute names:
201.
private static final Set<String> USE_CASE_ATTRS;

202.
static {

203.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“customerOID”);

204.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“custMgrBean”);

205.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“orderOID”);

206.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“orderMgrBean”);

207.
}
Which code snippet deletes these attributes from the session object?
A. session.removeAll(USE_CASE_ATTRS);

B. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) { session.remove(attr);
}

C. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.removeAttribute(attr);
}

D. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.deleteAttribute(attr);
}

E. session.deleteAllAttributes(USE_CASE_ATTRS);

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Assume that a news tag library contains the tags lookup and item: lookup Retrieves the latest news headlines and executes the tag body once for each headline. Exposes a NESTED page scoped attribute called headline of type com.example.Headline containing details for that headline. item Outputs the HTML for a single news headline. Accepts an attribute info of type com.example.Headline containing details for the headline to be rendered.Which snippet of JSP code returns the latest news headlines in an HTML table, one per row?
A. <table>
<tr>
<td>
<news:lookup />
<news:item info=”${headline}” />
</td>
</tr>
. </table>

B. <news:lookup />
<table>
<tr>
<td><news:item info=”${headline}” /></td>
</tr>
</table>

C. <table>
. <news:lookup>
. <tr>
. <td><news:item info=”${headline}” /></td>
. </tr>
. </news:lookup>
. </table>

D. <table>
<tr>
. <news:lookup>
. <td><news:item info=”${headline}” /></td>
. </news:lookup>

. </tr> . </table>
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8
Which JSTL code snippet can be used to perform URL rewriting?
A. <a href='<c:url url=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
B. <a href='<c:link url=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
C. <a href='<c:url value=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
D. <a href='<c:link value=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Assume the scoped attribute priority does NOT yet exist. Which two create and set a new request- scoped attribute priority to the value “medium”? (Choose two.)
A. ${priority = ‘medium’}
B. ${requestScope[‘priority’] = ‘medium’}
C. <c:set var=”priority” value=”medium” />
D. <c:set var=”priority” scope=”request”>medium</c:set>
E. <c:set var=”priority” value=”medium” scope=”request” />
F. <c:set property=”priority” scope=”request”>medium</c:set>
G. <c:set property=”priority” value=”medium” scope=”request” />
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 10
You are creating a JSP page to display a collection of datA. This data can be displayed in several different ways so the architect on your project decided to create a generic servlet that generates a comma-delimited string so that various pages can render the data in different ways. This servlet takes on request parameter: objectID. Assume that this servlet is mapped to the URL pattern: /WEB-INF/data.
In the JSP you are creating, you need to split this string into its elements separated be commas and generate an HTML <ul> list from the datA. Which JSTL code snippet will accomplish this goal?
A. <c:import varReader=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
<c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />
</c:import>
<ul>
<c:forTokens items’${dataString.split(“,”)}’ var=’item’>
<li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
</ul>

B. <c:import varReader=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
. <c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />
. </c:import>
. <ul>
. <c:forTokens items’${dataString}’ delims=’,’ var=’item’>
. <li>${item}</li>
. </c:forTokens>
. </ul>

C. <c:import var=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
. <c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />

. </c:import>
. <ul>
. <c:forTokens items’${dataString.split(“,”)}’ var=’item’>
. <li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
. </ul>

D. <c:import var=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
<c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />
</c:import>
<ul>
. <c:forTokens items’${dataString}’ delims=’,’ var=’item’>
. <li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
. </ul>

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which three are true about TLD files? (Choose three.)
A. The web container recognizes TLD files placed in any subdirectory of WEB-INF.
B. When deployed inside a JAR file, TLD files must be in the META-INF directory, or a subdirectory of it.
C. A tag handler’s attribute must be included in the TLD file only if the attribute can accept request-time expressions.
D. The web container can generate an implicit TLD file for a tag library comprised of both simple tag handlers and tag files.
E. The web container can automatically extend the tag library map described in a web.xml file by including entries extracted from the web application’s TLD files.
Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 12
Your management has required that all JSPs be created to generate XHTML-compliant content and to facilitate that decision, you are required to create all JSPs using the JSP Document format. In the reviewOrder.jspx page, you need to use several core JSTL tags to process the collection of order items in the customer’s shopping cart. Which JSP code snippets must you use in the reviewOrder.jspx page?
A. <html xmlns:jsp=http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page version=”2.0″>
<jsp:directive.taglib prefix=”c”
uri=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core” />
<!– page content –>
</html>

B. <html xmlns:jsp=”http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page”
version=”2.0″
xmlns:c=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core”>
<!– page content –>
</html>

C. <jsp:root xmlns:jsp=”http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page”
version=”2.0″>
<jsp:directive.taglib prefix=”c”
uri=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core” />
. <!– page content –>
. </jsp:root>

D. <jsp:root xmlns:jsp=”http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page”
version=”2.0″
xmlns:c=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core”>
<!– page content –>
. </jsp:root>

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13
Which two JSTL URL-related tags perform URL rewriting? (Choose two.)
A. Url
B. Link
C. Param
D. Import
E. Redirect
Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 14
A custom JSP tag must be able to support an arbitrary number of attributes whose names are unknown when the tag class is designed. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The <body-content> element in the echo tag TLD must have the value JSP.
B. The echo tag handler must define the setAttribute(String key, String value) method.
C. The <dynamic-attributes>true</dynamic-attributes> element must appear in the echo tag TLD.
D. The class implementing the echo tag handler must implement the javax.servlet.jsp.tagext.IterationTag interface.
E. The class implementing the echo tag handler must implement the
F. .javax.servlet.jsp.tagext.DynamicAttributes interface.
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO:15
A developer has used this code within a servlet:
62.
if(request.isUserInRole(“vip”)) {

63.
// VIP-related logic here

64.
}
What else must the developer do to ensure that the intended security goal is achieved?
A. Create a user called vip in the security realm
B. Define a group within the security realm and call it vip
C. Define a security-role named vip in the deployment descriptor
D. Declare a security-role-ref for vip in the deployment descriptor
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Given:
3.
class MyServlet extends HttpServlet {

4.
public void doPut(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws
ServletException, IOException {
5.
// servlet code here …

26.
}
27.
}
If the DD contains a single security constraint associated with MyServlet and its only <http
method> tags and <auth-constraint> tags are:
<http-method>GET</http-method>
<http-method>PUT</http-method>
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>

Which four requests would be allowed by the container? (Choose four.)
A. A user whose role is Admin can perform a PUT.
B. A user whose role is Admin can perform a GET. C. A user whose role is Admin can perform a POST. D. A user whose role is Member can perform a PUT. E. A user whose role is Member can perform a POST. F. A user whose role is Member can perform a GET.
Answer: A,B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 17
What is true about Java EE authentication mechanisms?
A. If your deployment descriptor correctly declares an authentication type of CLIENT_CERT, your users must have a certificate from an official source before they can use your application.
B. If your deployment descriptor correctly declares an authentication type of BASIC, the container automatically requests a user name and password whenever a user starts a new session.
C. If you want your web application to support the widest possible array of browsers, and you want to perform authentication, the best choice of Java EE authentication mechanisms is DIGEST.
D. To use Java EE FORM authentication, you must declare two HTML files in your deployment descriptor, and you must use a predefined action in the HTML file that handles your user’s login.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 18
If you want to use the Java EE platform’s built-in type of authentication that uses a custom HTML page for authentication, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Your deployment descriptor will need to contain this tag: <authmethod> CUSTOM</auth- method>.
B. The related custom HTML login page must be named loginPage.html.
C. When you use this type of authentication, SSL is turned on automatically.
D. You must have a tag in your deployment descriptor that allows you to point to both a login HTML page and an HTML page for handling any login errors.
E. In the HTML related to authentication for this application, you must use predefined variable names for the variables that store the user and password values.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 19
Given this fragment in a servlet:
23.
if(req.isUserInRole(“Admin”)) {
24.
// do stuff
25.
}
And the following fragment from the related Java EE deployment descriptor:

812.
<security-role-ref>
813.
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
814.
<role-link>Administrator</role-link>
815.
</security-role-ref>

900.
<security-role>
901.
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
902.
<role-name>Administrator</role-name>
903.
</security-role>

What is the result?
A. Line 24 can never be reached.
B. The deployment descriptor is NOT valid.
C. If line 24 executes, the user’s role will be Admin.
D. If line 24 executes, the user’s role will be Administrator.
E. If line 24 executes the user’s role will NOT be predictable.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the security constraint in a DD:
101.
<security-constraint>

102.
<web-resource-collection>

103.
<web-resource-name>Foo</web-resource-name>

104.
<url-pattern>/Bar/Baz/*</url-pattern>

105.
<http-method>POST</http-method>

106.
</web-resource-collection>

107.
<auth-constraint>

108.
<role-name>DEVELOPER</role-name>

109.
</auth-constraint>

110.
</security-constraint>
And given that “MANAGER” is a valid role-name, which four are true for this security constraint? (Choose four.)
A. MANAGER can do a GET on resources in the /Bar/Baz directory.
B. MANAGER can do a POST on any resource in the /Bar/Baz directory.
C. MANAGER can do a TRACE on any resource in the /Bar/Baz directory.
D. DEVELOPER can do a GET on resources in the /Bar/Baz directory.
E. DEVELOPER can do only a POST on resources in the /Bar/Baz directory.
F. DEVELOPER can do a TRACE on any resource in the /Bar/Baz directory.
Answer: A,C,D,F

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QUESTION 1
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, the Operational VLAN ID shows a blank entry. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The switch may not be supplying inline power.
B. The spanning tree portfast command needs to be removed.
C. The trunk encapsulation is missing. The trunk must be configured for dot1.Q.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the switch.
E. The Operational VLAN ID of the phone always shows as blank. The Admin. VLAN ID should be 110.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-l3 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to “Direct.”
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?
A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Which two troubleshooting tools would initially be the best to use when troubleshooting the PSTN gateway side of a call routing issue while using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT trace output
B. Cisco IOS debug commands
C. Dialed Number Analyzer output
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
E. Cisco IOS show commands

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323 system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS.
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered.
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured.
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

All phones are placed in the Internal_Pt partition. The CSS for all phones contains the partition Internal_Pt, and Vml.CSS contains the voicemail hunt pilot. When a call is placed from extension 2001 to 2002, which statement is true?
A. Extension 2002 will ring.
B. The call will be blocked.
C. The call will be answered by voicemail.
D. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be blocked.
E. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be forwarded to voicemail.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
When a remote endpoint dials in to join a conference that is configured on a Cisco TelePresence Server bridge, the endpoint receives only audio. Other users can successfully join the call with Voice and Video. What is causing this issue?
A. The endpoint does not have the multisite option installed.
B. The endpoint does not have the partition of the bridge in its CSS.
C. The bridge is out of all licenses.
D. The endpoint is assigned a region without enough configured bandwidth for video.
E. The bridge is not able to host video calls.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Cisco TelePresence System EX90-A and EX90-B are in a call. EX90-A tries to call EX90-C. When the call is dialed, EX90-B is put on hold. EX90-A and EX90-C are connected, but there is no merge button on the touch panel. What is causing this issue?
A. The multisite option key is missing.
B. The multisite configuration is missing.
C. The conference option key is missing.
D. The conference configuration is missing.
E. CiscoTelePresence systems cannot make multipoint calls without a Cisco TelePresence Server.
F. The multipoint option key is missing.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which statement indicates something that can cause an inbound PSTN call to an H.323 gateway that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to fail to ring an IP phone?
A. The gateway is not registered in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The gateway IP address that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not match the IP address that is configured at the gateway in the h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr command.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a matching route pattern to match the called number.
D. The gateway is missing the command allow-connections h323 to h323 under the voice service voip configuration.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Some users report that they cannot dial out from headquarters on their Cisco IP Phones to PSTN users, but others can. Which troubleshooting approach is the most direct to isolate the source of the failure of the users that cannot dial out to the PSTN?
A. Use DNA to analyze the dialing permissions of the Cisco IP Phones.
B. Use DNA to generate actual calls to the PSTN.
C. Use RTMT to analyze the dialing permissions of the Cisco IP Phones.
D. Use RTMT to generate actual calls to the PSTN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
You have been presented with a trouble ticket from an end user who works at a remote location that is served by a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. The user reports being unable to place calls to international numbers, but all other calls work properly and other users at this location can place international calls. Which two troubleshooting techniques would be helpful in resolving this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS debug tools
B. Class of Restriction baseline configuration for the user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. show output of the ephone and ephone-dn configurations
D. show output of the voice translation rules in the voice gateway
E. show output for the T1 controller and voice port configuration in the voice gateway

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the digit manipulation path a call takes within the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system from the perspective of a specific directory number, without having the actual device at hand?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Dialed Number Analyzer
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Real Time Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Syslog Viewer
E. Cisco IOS debugs

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
During a business-to-business video call through the Cisco Expressway solution, the internal endpoint can call out to the remote endpoint on the Internet, but it does not receive audio or video. The remote endpoint receives both audio and video. What is causing the issue?
A. The Cisco Expressway does not have a Rich Media Session license.
B. The firewall is blocking SIP signaling.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not configured for business-to-business calling.
D. The firewall is blocking inbound RTP ports.
E. The Advanced Networking option is not installed on the Expressway Edge.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
System A at Company 1 is calling System B at Company 2. The call completes, but only audio and video are present on System A from System B. What are three possible causes? (Choose three.)
A. System A cannot call System B because it is at a different company.
B. There is a firewall in the path that is blocking audio and video traffic from Company 1 to Company 2.
C. The firewall at Company 1 is blocking outgoing traffic.
D. An access list is blocking video and audio somewhere in the video and audio path between System A and System B.
E. System A has turned off the camera and the microphone.

Correct Answer: BDE
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QUESTION 1
Which parameter should be set to prevent H.323 endpoints from registering to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server automatically?
A. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Discover to off.
B. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Registration to off.
C. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Allow List, and set Auto Registration to off.
D. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Configuration, and set Auto Registration to off.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. Endpoints can make calls to unknown IP addresses without the VCS querying any neighbors.
B. If the VCS receives a call to an unknown IP address, it queries its neighbors for the remote address and if permitted, it routes the call through the neighbor.
C. Endpoints that are registered directly to the VCS can call only an IP address of a system that is also registered directly to that VCS.
D. Dialing by IP address is not supported on VCS.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
A local gateway is registered to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server with a prefix of 7. The administrator wants to stop calls from outside the organization being routed through it. Which CPL configuration accomplishes this goal?
A.
B.
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which type of search message appears in the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server search history page when it receives a H.323 call from a RAS-enabled endpoint that originates from an external zone?
A. ARQ
B. SETUP
C. LRQ
D. INVITE
E. OPTIONS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Widgets.com’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Variable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 8
Which two statements about configuring mobile and remote access on Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The traversal server zone on Expressway-C must have a TLS verify subject name configured.
B. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Force encrypted.
C. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
D. The traversal client zone on Expressway-C Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
E. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone must be set to SIP TLS with TLS verify mode set to On.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which configuration does Cisco recommend for the peer address on the Expressway-C secure traversal zone when the Expressway-E has one NIC enabled?
A. Expressway-E internal IP address
B. Expressway-E external IP address
C. Expressway-E internal FQDN
D. Expressway-E external FQDN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 16
What is the standard Layer 3 DSCP media packet value that should be set for Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. CS3 (24)
B. EF (46)
C. AF41 (34)
D. CS4 (32)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
When you configure QoS on VCS, which settings do you apply if traffic through the VCS should be tagged with DSCP AF41?
A. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 32.
B. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 34.
C. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 34.
D. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 32.
E. Set QoS mode to ToS and tag value to 32.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What is the default DSCP/PHB for video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
The administrator at Company X is getting user reports of inconsistent quality on video calls between endpoints registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The administrator runs a wire trace while a video call is taking place and sees that the packets are not set to AF41 for desktop video as they should be. Where should the administrator look next to confirm that the correct DSCP markings are being set?
A. on the MGCP router at the edge of both networks
B. the service parameters in the VCS Control
C. the QoS service parameter in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. on the actual Cisco phone itself because the DSCP setting is not part of its configuration file downloaded at registration
E. The setting cannot be changed for video endpoints that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but only when they are registered to the VCS Control.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 1
When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with ‘deduplication’ enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) without ‘deduplication’ enabled.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only

Correct Answer: C

352-001

QUESTION 5
Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by installing and correctly configuring the ‘Cascade Connector’ agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named “Round-trip time”.
C. Use the View search box and enter “round”.
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both ingress and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate that Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP

Correct Answer: A

117-202

QUESTION 11
What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group Type.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Cascade Profiler’s Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade to report on which of the followinG. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could be becausE. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and Cascade Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in “passthru” mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade Pilot to connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 15
What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when you ‘view members’ of this ‘Undefined’ group’.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.

Correct Answer: B

200-101

QUESTION 16
How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can be determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and Cascade will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to detect security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested application delivery paths.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you click the ‘show advanced settings’ checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 18
Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the policy can treat as deviation from normal behavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the “Server Delay” column but shows no value for “Server Delay” in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure “Server Delay” and not functioning correctly.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 20
Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.

Correct Answer: C

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