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QUESTION 1
PowerHA automatic error notification for shared data volume groups traps on which specific error?
A. LVM_SA_WRTERR
B. LVM_SA_PVMISS
C. LVM_SA_STALEPP
D. LVM_SA_QUORCLOSE

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Failure to plan for which element will have a negative impact on PowerHA cluster availability, when using virtual I/O resources on the cluster nodes?
A. Planning for NPIV capable SAN switches
B. Planning for Etherchannel capable switches
C. Planning for update of Virtual I/O Servers
D. Planning for at least 2 virtual Ethernet adapters for each cluster network and each node Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What must be verified before configuring GLVM?
A. TCP/IP communication between sites is possible.
B. A replacement IP address is configured for XD_IP network.
C. The PowerHA cluster resource definition is completed on the primary site.
D. Shared volume groups for Geographically Mirrored Volume Groups are configured.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
An administrator finds that a colleague has increased the size of a file system in an Enhanced Concurrent Volume Group using base AIX commands. How can the administrator make the cluster configuration consistent again?
A. Run chfs on the other cluster nodes.
B. Run Extended Verification and Synchronization.
C. Run the synclvodm command on all cluster nodes.
D. Run Synchronize a Shared Volume Group Definition.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
In which configuration would an AIO Cache LV be required?
A. Cross-site LVM
B. Synchronous GLVM
C. Asynchronous GLVM
D. When using mirror pools Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Given the following cluster.mmddyyyy log file output, what has happened?
Mar 29 06:09:22 EVENT START: network_down -1 net_ether_01 Mar 29 06:09:22 EVENT COMPLETED: network_down -1 net_ether_01 0 Mar 29 06:09:29 EVENT START: network_down_complete -1 net_ether_01 Mar 29 06:09:29 EVENT COMPLETED: network_down_complete -1 net_ether_01 0
A. Non-redundant network switch has failed
B. One interface in net_ether_01 has failed
C. The service IP address was moved to another adapter
D. Some heartbeat packets have been lost on one node in a cluster Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
After installing PowerHA packages, what is the next step when configuring the cluster?
A. Configure cluster networks.
B. Add repository disk to the cluster.
C. Configure persistent IP addresses on all nodes.
D. Add cluster boot addresses, service addresses and hostnames to /etc/hosts.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
In order to utilize PowerHA 7 SAN based communications in a VIO Server environment, what task must be performed on the AIX client nodes?
A. Add a SANhb network into the cluster topology.
B. Add a virtual Ethernet adapter and specify VLAN 3358.
C. Configure/etc/cluster/ifrestrict to specify which HBAs should be excluded.
D. Add another HBA to each VIOS server and add it as avSCSI adapter for this purpose. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
An administrator is configuring a PowerHA 6 cluster to use disk heartbeat as a non IP network. A shared volume group, dhbvg, has been configured using a single disk, hdisklO, on NodeA and NodeB. The administrator believes that the prerequisites have been met, but would like to test connectivity of the disk heartbeat network before adding the network into the cluster.
How can the connectivity of this disk heartbeat network be tested?
A. On NodeA run the command /usr/bin/readvgda-V dhbvg -F statusOn NodeB run the command /usr/bin/putvgda-V dhbvg -a status=1
B. On NodeA run the command /usr/sbin/rsct/bin/dhb_transmit hdisk10On NodeB run the command /usr/sbin/rsct/bin/dhb_receive hdisk10
C. On NodeA run the command/usr/sbin/rsct/bin/dhb_read-p hdisk10-rOn NodeB run the command /usr/sbin/rsct/bin/dhb_read-p hdisk10-t
D. On NodeA run the command “echo 1 | /usr/bin/dd of=/dev/rhdisk10 bs=4K skip=2 count=1″On NodeB run the command/usr/bin/dd if=/dev/rhdisk10 bs=4K skip=2 count=1”

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
There is a two-node cluster with Node1 and Node2. An administrator changes filesystem size on Node1 by using the chfs command, and moves resource the
group to Node2.
The administrator finds the change of filesystem size is recognized on Node2.
Why is the filesystem size change reflected on Node2?

A. The gsclvmd daemon automatically synchronizes filesystem changes.
B. The filesystem size change is recognized when filesystem is mounted on Node2.
C. A pre-event is defined to get_disk_vg_fs event to reflect filesystem size change.
D. The shared volume group is re-imported on Node2 by lazy update when moving the resource group.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
A 2-node cluster has three multi-node disk heartbeat (MNDHB) networks and data volume groups on separate disks. Application resource groups are online on Node1. What happens if Node1 loses access to two of the three MNDHB disks?
A. Node1 halts
B. Application resource groups move to Node2
C. Application resource groups remain on Node1
D. Application resource groups on Node1 go offline

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
What is the command used to check the status of all interfaces and hearbeats in a PowerHA 7 cluster?
A. cllsif-p
B. cltopinfo-m
C. Iscluster-i
D. Issrc-Is topsvcs Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
An administrator has a 2-node cluster and has chosen the C-SPOC option to bring a resource group offline. The resource group was stable on the primary node prior taking resource offline, however it has gone into an error state. The administrator corrects the error and issues the clruncmd to continue cluster processing.
What will happen to the resource group?
A. The resource group goes offline.
B. The resource group falls over to the remaining active node.
C. The node shuts down and the resource group goes into temporary error state.
D. The resource group remains in error state until services on all cluster nodes are stopped and restarted. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
After upgrading one node of a 2-node cluster to PowerHA 7, an administrator discovered that the wrong disk was chosen for the repository disk. What must be modified on both nodes to correct this error without starting over from the beginning?
A. HACMPsircol
B. HACMPcluster
C. cluster.conf
D. clmigcheck.txt Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
When using PowerHA 7, a shared volume group (VG) must be configured as___________.
A. Scalable VG
B. Cluster aware VG
C. Concurrent capable VG
D. Enhanced concurrent VG

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
An administrator adds a new network interface to each node in a 2-node PowerHA 7 cluster, and sets the IP addresses. When is the new network interface used for heartbeating?
A. Immediately
B. After refreshing clcomd
C. After the cluster is synchronized
D. When restarting PowerHA on both nodes Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
What does the gsclvmd daemon do?
A. Enhanced concurrent mode file system names are kept synchronized across nodes
B. New enhanced concurrent mode volume group definitions are imported to all nodes
C. Enhanced concurrent mode logical volume sizes are kept synchronized across nodes
D. Quorum is maintained across cluster disks for enhanced concurrent mode volume groups

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
A PowerHA 6 cluster has missed too many heartbeats during a large disk write operation, and has triggered the deadman switch. Which tunable can help ensure that HA Cluster Manager continues to run?
A. I/O Pacing and syncd frequency
B. I/O Pacing and asynchronous I/O
C. Syncd frequency and asynchronous I/O
D. Asynchronous I/O and disk queue_depth

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
A company is determining how they can use DLPAR operations within PowerHAto maximize the usage of their system. Which DLPAR attribute can be controlled through PowerHA?
A. The physical I/O adapters that will need to move to an application server
B. The LPAR CPU Shared Pool weighting required to start an application server
C. The minimum and desired processing units required to start an application server
D. The minimum and maximum virtual processors required to start an application server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
An administrator has configured a 2-node PowerHA 6 cluster, Node1 and Node2, with no non-IP networks.
Sometime after configuring the cluster, the administrator noticed that Node2 appeared to have been shut down.
After restarting Node2 the administrator analyzed the cluster log files in an attempt to determine the cause of the problem.
The clstrmgr.debug log file contained the following information:
Based on the above information, which of the following could explain why Node2 was shut down?
A. The node was halted due to a DMS_TIMEOUT.
B. Node isolation occurred causing a domain merge.
C. Automatic error notification detected a problem and halted the node.
D. The node was unable to fork a new topology services process due to memory limitations. Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 55
Which THREE items can you add to a managed network view?
A. printers
B. websites
C. computers
D. DNS servers
E. dynamic lists
F. neighborhoods

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 56
Which scenario is most likely to result in out-of-sync issues for users with mobile accounts?
A. The user has both local and mobile accounts on the same computer.
B. The user attempts to synchronize different folders on different computers.
C. The same user account is accessed from multiple computers simultaneously.
D. The synchronization preference settings for the workgroup and user accounts do not match.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
In Workgroup Manager you have left a preference set to its default management frequency of Never for a user account. Which statement describes the preference’s status?
A. The preference is not currently managed for the user, but may be managed at the computer or workgroup level.
B. The preference will never be managed for the user, regardless of its setting at the computer or workgroup level.
C. The preference is not currently managed for the user, and due to precedence, it cannot be managed at the computer or workgroup level.
D. Due to precedence, the user-level preference setting will only be applied if there is no setting for this preference at the computer or workgroup level.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
You are setting up a training classroom and have created 20 generic user accounts. You have configured the Dock to be displayed on the left side of the screen for each user account, and have managed this preference to apply Always. Which statement describes your students’ experience with the Dock?
A. Users will see the Dock on the left, and they cannot change its location.
B. Users will see the Dock on the left, but they can change its location at any time.
C. Users will see the Dock on the left unless the user-level Dock location preference is overridden by a conflicting setting for their computer.
D. Users will see the Dock on the left unless the user-level Dock location preference is overridden by a conflicting setting for the workgroup they choose at login.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
On your directory server, you have created a network view named Science that is assigned to the
Science Lab computer list. You have also created a Default and a Public view. Mary is using a computer that is bound to the directory server, but her computer’s search path does not include the directory server. Which network view will Mary see?
A. Default
B. Public
C. Science
D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
You are configuring security policies in Mac OS X Server for your Windows user accounts. What password type must you set in Workgroup Manager for these accounts?
A. SASL
B. Crypt
C. clear text
D. Open Directory
E. Active Directory
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 101
Exhibit

What is the module shown in this picture?
A. Zip drive
B. Hard drive
C. Optical drive
D. Blower assembly
E. Lithium Ion battery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
What is the function of the inverter board inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. The inverter board inverts the speaker signal phase.
B. The inverter board powers the LCD display backlight.
C. The inverter board controls the flow of power to the logic board.
D. The inverter board inverts the image that is displayed on the LCD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
A customer brings her iBook (32 VRAM) in with severely distorted sound. You boot to a known- – good CD to rule out software, but the issue persists. Which of the following parts is most likely to be causing the problem and should be replaced?
A. Top Case
B. Logic board
C. Sound board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet after connecting his new PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1GHz) to his cable modem via Ethernet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. Apple Talk is not enabled on the computer’s Ethernet port.
B. The computer is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
C. A faulty cable was used to connect the computer and the cable modem.
D. The cable modem’s Ethernet port is not computer with the computer ‘s Ethernet port.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which THREE of the following iBook or PowerBook can accept a 144-pin DDR266PC2100 SDRAM SO-DIMM?
A. iBook G4
B. iBook (Early 2003)
C. PowerBook G4 (DVI)
D. iBook G4 (Early 2004)
E. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
F. PowerBook G4 (12-inch DVI)
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 106
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 107
A customer’s iBook will not charge when the A.C. adapter, but the issue persists. What part is the most likely to have failed?
A. Logic board
B. DC-in switch
C. Reed switch
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 108
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his iBook G4(Early 2004). What Apple resource should you refer this customer to?
A. Downloads
B. User’s Manual
C. Specifications
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s iBook G4. Which of the following would be the choice Apple recommends for you to research the problem and possibly locate a solution or workaround for the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s Manual
D. Knowledge Base

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which section of the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.33GHz) Service Manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing a DC-in board?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
According to apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Where is the BEST place to look for information about any special hardware repair tool required for disassembly of an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service Name
C. User’s Manual
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?
A. What is the issue?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
D. Is this the first time you have had this problem?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
To isolate a video problem to hardware or software on a PowerBook G4 (17-inch), which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Connect an external VGA display.
B. Reinstall the appropriate Mac OS.
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid.
D. Start up from a known-good startup disc.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
An iBook (900MHz 32 VRAM) powers on with a normal startup chime. But the LCD display seems dark. Upon closer examination with a flashlight you notice that
the LCD is displaying a faint image of the finder desktop. Which one of the following modules is MOST likely at fault?
A. LCD display panel
B. Inverter board
C. DC in board
D. Logic board

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
A PowerBook G4 (17-inch) has a malfunctioning logic board. You replace the logic board. Which of the following diagnostic utilities should you run to verify that the new logic board is functioning properly?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Disk First Aid
C. Tech Tool Deluxe
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that ______
A. No new issues have arisen.
B. Third-party software is working.
C. The original issue has been resolved.
D. The computer falls under service warranty.
E. System Preferences settings are set correctly.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 118
Which of the following is the best way to eject a disc when normal methods for ejecting it, such as using the Mac OS Desktop or the keyboard, have not succeeded?
A. Boot into Open Firmware and type ‘reset-nvram’.
B. Restart the computer while holding down the track pad button.
C. Remove and disassemble the optical drive to remove the disk.
D. Remove the computer’s front bezel and manually pry the disc out of the drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Which one of the following troubleshooting steps is NOT appropriate when
troubleshooting an iBook or PowerBook with on video on its built-in display?
A. Hold a bright light against the screen.
B. Check if brightness settings are all the way down.
C. Connect an external display to the iBook or PowerBook.
D. Check the network setting on the iBook or PowerBook.
E. Check the internal video cables & connectors for damage.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
A customer’s PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) fails to power on with a known-good power adapter connected and plugged in. Which of the following steps should be tried FIRST?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Replace the DC-in Board.
C. Run Apple Service diagnostic.
D. Perform a keyboard PMU reset.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
You are troubleshooting an iBook (G4) that will not boot, and emits error tones when powered on. You suspect that the customer may have installed incompatible or faulty RAM, but you aren’t sure. What should you do to verify the RAM requirements for this iBook (G4)?
A. Call Apple
B. Order Apple RAM
C. Check Specifications
D. Count the RAM sockets on the logic board.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 122
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTIANLY a software-related problem?
A. No video on display
B. Low disk space warning
C. Single beep at startup
D. No Internet connectivity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
A customer states that he cannot open an AppleWorks file. What is the most productive question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other AppleWorks file?
C. What version of AppleWorks are you using?
D. Is your Mac connected to network?

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
You have replaced the optical drive in a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz). In what THREE ways should you test the repair before returning the system to the customer?
A. Leave the computer on overnight.
B. Verify that the original symptom is resolved.
C. Verify that no new symptoms have occurred.
D. Start up the computer in target Disk mode to test the internal hard drive.
E. Run all Apple Service Diagnostic tests for the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz)
F. Run Apple Service Diagnostic optical drive tests for the PowerBook G4(12-inch 1 GHz)

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 125
A PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) has the following symptom: The cursor does not move when the trackpad is used. You have verified that all peripherals have been disconnected and have booted from the Software Install all and restore DVD to verify that it is not a software problem. What is the recommended order in which to attempt the next troubleshooting steps? <1> Replace logic board <2> Check trackpad flex cable connection to logic board.
<3> Reset Power Manager.
<4>
Replace top case.

A.
1,4,3,2

B.
2,3,1,4

C.
3,2,4,1

D.
4,3,1,2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
You are troubleshooting an intermittent video issue on an PowerBookG4 (17-inch
1.5 GHz). Which of the following is the most appropriate way to approach this problem?
A. Do nothing. The problem may resolve itself.
B. Run looping diagnostics to verify the issue.
C. Replace the Display the Assembly inside the PowerBook.
D. Follow component isolation steps to resolve the issue.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a hardware-related problem?
A. No video at startup
B. Error beep at startup
C. Distorted video at startup
D. Blinking question mark at startup

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
You are troubleshooting a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) that shuts down intermittently. Rank the following possible causes from FIRST to LAST, in the order you should check for them: <1> Faulty DC-In Board <2> Faulty Logic Board <3> Blowers faulty or blower cables disconnected <4> Faulty battery or battery connector <5> Missing feet on bottom case
A. 1,3,4,5,2
B. 2,1,4,3,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 4,3,5,1,2
E. 5,1,2,4,3

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 106
Exhibit:

In the exhibit, what is item number 3?
A. USB port
B. FireWire 400 port
C. FireWire 800 port
D. 10/100/1000Base-T Ethernet port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 107
A customer’s iBook will not charge when the A.C. adapter, but the issue persists. What part is the most likely to have failed?
A. Logic board
B. DC-in switch
C. Reed switch
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 108
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his iBook G4(Early 2004). What Apple resource should you refer this customer to?
A. Downloads
B. User’s Manual
C. Specifications
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s iBook G4. Which of the following would be the choice Apple recommends for you to research the problem and possibly locate a solution or workaround for the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s Manual
D. Knowledge Base

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which section of the PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.33GHz) Service Manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing a DC-in board?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
According to apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Where is the BEST place to look for information about any special hardware repair tool required for disassembly of an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service Name
C. User’s Manual
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?
A. What is the issue?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
D. Is this the first time you have had this problem?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
To isolate a video problem to hardware or software on a PowerBook G4 (17-inch), which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Connect an external VGA display.
B. Reinstall the appropriate Mac OS.
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid.
D. Start up from a known-good startup disc.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
An iBook (900MHz 32 VRAM) powers on with a normal startup chime. But the LCD display seems dark. Upon closer examination with a flashlight you notice that the LCD is displaying a faint image of the finder desktop. Which one of the following modules is MOST likely at fault?
A. LCD display panel
B. Inverter board
C. DC in board
D. Logic board

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
A PowerBook G4 (17-inch) has a malfunctioning logic board. You replace the logic board. Which of the following diagnostic utilities should you run to verify that the new logic board is functioning properly?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Disk First Aid
C. Tech Tool Deluxe
D. Apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that ______
A. No new issues have arisen.
B. Third-party software is working.
C. The original issue has been resolved.
D. The computer falls under service warranty.
E. System Preferences settings are set correctly.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 118
Which of the following is the best way to eject a disc when normal methods for ejecting it, such as using the Mac OS Desktop or the keyboard, have not succeeded?
A. Boot into Open Firmware and type ‘reset-nvram’.
B. Restart the computer while holding down the track pad button.
C. Remove and disassemble the optical drive to remove the disk.
D. Remove the computer’s front bezel and manually pry the disc out of the drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Which one of the following troubleshooting steps is NOT appropriate when troubleshooting an iBook or PowerBook with on video on its built-in display?
A. Hold a bright light against the screen.
B. Check if brightness settings are all the way down.
C. Connect an external display to the iBook or PowerBook.
D. Check the network setting on the iBook or PowerBook.
E. Check the internal video cables & connectors for damage.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
A customer’s PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) fails to power on with a known-good power adapter connected and plugged in. Which of the following steps should be tried FIRST?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Replace the DC-in Board.
C. Run Apple Service diagnostic.
D. Perform a keyboard PMU reset.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1

Given the following stateful session bean:
10.
@Stateful

11.
@TransactionAttributefJransactionAttributeType. SUPPORTS)

12.
public class VideoBean implements Video {

13.
// insert code here

14.
public void methodAO {} 15.}
Assuming no other transaction-related metadata, which code can be added at Line 13 to guarantee that business method methodA will execute only if invoked with an active transaction?
A. @TransactionAttributefJ
B. @TransactionManagement(TransactionAttributeType. CONTAINER)
C. @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType. MANDATORY)
D. @TransactionAttributeO”ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10.
@EJB Foo beanl;

11.
@EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20.
booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);

21.
booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is true.
B. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is false.
C. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, testl is false, and test2 is false.
Answer: B,C QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?
A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with container- managed transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext. Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)
A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 6
A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller’s security role. Only users in security roles “ADMIN” and “USER” are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. Annotate method doStuff with @RolesAllowed({“ADMIN”,”USER”})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role “ADMIN”, implement the behavior for users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole(“ADMIN”) returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role “ADMIN”.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 7
Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Given:
11.
.Entity public class X{

12.
@ld int id;

13.
Y y; 14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. Class Y must be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is not defined correctly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. Class Y must be accessed by a persistence application through a public interface.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system. Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the lifetime of the bean and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI. Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Read the data in the bean’s constructor.
B. The data can only be read in the bean’s business methods.
C. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @Post Activate.
E. Read the data in a method which is annotated with (5)PostConstruct.
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 10
An enterprise bean has security permissions set up using declarative security features. Under which two conditions can a client be guaranteed to have permission to invoke a business method on the enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. The Application Assembler has marked the enterprise bean method as unchecked.
B. The client’s principal has been assigned a security role with permission to invoke the method.
C. The Application Assembler has set the security-identity deployment descriptor to run-as.
D. The Application Assembler has mapped all security role references using the role-link element.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 11
An enterprise developer needs to modify the order of interceptor method execution specified by the Bean Provider, but does NOT have access to the bean’s source code. No deployment descriptor was provided in the ejb-jar delivered by the Bean Provider. Which represents the solution to this problem?
A. No solution is possible under these conditions.
B. The Deployer can add metadata annotations to the ejb-jar.
C. The Application Assembler can add metadata annotations to the ejb-jar.
D. The System Administrator can add interceptor binding information at runtime, using vendor- specific tools.
E. The Application Assembler can add a deployment descriptor to the ejb-jar that includes interceptor binding information.
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 12
A developer writes a session bean which uses several configurable constants.
The constants are all defined as String types in JNDI. This cannot be changed because existing code is using the same JNDI information. One of the constants is a date, represented in string format. This date constant is used in multiple business methods of this session bean, actually as a Date object.
Converting strings to dates is an expensive operation; therefore, the developer wants to do as little converting as possible.
Which two scenarios can be used to prevent converting from String to Date in every business method? (Choose two.)
A. Load the date string in an instance Date type variable by annotation of the instance variable and let the container autoconvert it to a Date type automatically.
B. Load the date string in an instance String type variable by annotation of this instance variable and convert it to a Date type object in the beans constructor.
C. Load the date string in an instance String type variable by annotation of this instance variable and convert it to a Date type object in a @PostConstruct annotated method.
D. Load the date string in an instance Date type variable by annotation of a setter method that takes a String and which carries out the conversion and assigns the value to the instance variable.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which is a valid PostConstruct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. .PostConstruct
public boolean initQ {return true; }

B. .PostConstruct private static void init0 {}
C. .PostConstruct private void init0 {}
D. .PostConstruct public static void initQ {}
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
A developer wants to create a JMS message-driven bean that responds to javax.jms.TextMessage messages. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The developer must implement the ejbCreate method.
B. The developer does NOT need to create a business interface for the bean.
C. The developer must implement a method that declares javax.jms.TextMessage as an argument.
D. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax.jms.MessageListener interface.
E. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax. ejb. MessageDnvenBean interface.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 15
A Reader entity has a one-to-many, bidirectional relationship with a Book entity. Two Reader entities are persisted, each having two Book entities associated with them. For example, readeM has booka and bookb, while reader2 has bookc and bookd. Which query returns a Collection of fewer than four elements?
A. SELECT b.reader FROM Book b
B. SELECT r FROM Book b INNER JOIN b.reader r
C. SELECT r FROM Reader r INNER JOIN r.books b
D. SELECT r from Book b LEFT JOIN b.reader r LEFT JOIN FETCH r.books
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 16
A session bean’s business method throws an exception during execution.
Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)

A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensure that the current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the original exception.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 17
The ejb-jar file format is a contract between which two EJB role pairs? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer and System Administrator
B. Application Assembler and Deployer
C. Bean Provider and Application Assembler
D. Bean Provider and EJB Container Provider
E. EJB Server Provider and EJB Container Provider
F. Application Assembler and EJB Container Provider
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 18
Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
A developer writes a stateful session bean called FooBean.
Which code can be inserted before Line 11 of the FooBean class to define a TYPE-level environment dependency on a JMS Topic?
11.
public class FooBean {

12.

13.
public void fooQ {}

14.
15.}

A. @Resource(type=Topic. class)
B. @Resource(name=”topicRef) private static Topic topic;
C. .Resource private
D. .Resource private
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
A developer has created an application-managed entity manager. Which statement is correct?
A. .Resource private .Resource private
B. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is created.
C. A new persistence context begins when a new JTA transaction begins.
D. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a JTA transaction.
E. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a resource-local transaction.
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
An enterprise bean calls the javax.naming.Context.rebind method to modify the value associated with an environment entry. What is the expected behavior?
A. A javax.naming.OperationNotSupportedException is thrown.
B. The value is successfully modified but the new value is only available to new instances of the enterprise bean.
C. The value is successfully modified and the new value is available to all instances of the enterprise bean.
D. The value is successfully modified but the new value is only available after server restart.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Given:
A bean calls setRollbackOnly on the EJBContext interface within a transactional business method.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The container will ensure that the transaction will never commit.
B. The bean must have started the current transaction for this to be legal.
C. The bean must have bean-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
D. The bean must have container-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
E. The transaction timeout is immediately disabled.
Answer: A,D QUESTION NO: 3

Which two statements about EJB roles and their security responsibilities are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Deployer assigns principals to the security roles defined in an EJB application.
B. The Bean Provider defines the security role references used by an enterprise bean.
C. The Application Assembler declares the principals used by the security roles.
D. The System Administrator creates security roles for an EJB application.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Given:
A stateful session bean allocates resources in the ejbCreate method and releases the resources in the ejbRemove method.
When will this resource release strategy fail?

A. after a transaction rollback
B. after a system exception is thrown from the instance’s method to the container
C. after a timeout of client inactivity while the instance is in the active state
D. after normal completion of a transaction
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which is a responsibility of the EJB 2.0 container, with respect to session beans?
A. invoking the home interface create method
B. invoking the setSessionContext method
C. implementing an afterBegin method, if declared in the bean’s remote interface
D. implementing a class that implements javax.ejb.SessionBean

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Given this session bean code:
4.
public void ejbActivate() {

5.
// method is empty

6.
}
Which two are guaranteed to be true? (Choose two.)
A. There is no requirement that the bean expose a local client view.
B. A client cannot invoke this method.
C. This method is contained in a final class.
D. All of the instance variables in this class are serializable.
E. This is not a stateful session bean.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 7
Which statement is true about BOTH stateful session beans and stateless session beans?
A. The container passivates them using the ejbPassivate / ejbActivate methods.
B. Any bean instance must be able to handle concurrent invocations from different threads.
C. A bean with bean-managed transactions must commit or roll back any transaction before returning from a business method.
D. Bean instances are not required to survive container crashes.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8

Who must ensure that a bean’s environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. EJB Container Provider
B. System Administrator
C. Bean Provider
D. Deployer
E. EJB Server Provider
F. Application Assembler
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
Given:
A stateful session bean allocates resources in the ejbCreate method and releases the resources in the ejbRemove method.
When will this resource release strategy fail?
A. after a timeout of client inactivity while the instance is in the active state
B. after a transaction rollback
C. after a system exception is thrown from the instance’s method to the container
D. after normal completion of a transaction
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
Which method can be found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. remove(Object primaryKey)
B. remove(Handle handle)
C. getEJBMetaData()
D. getHomeHandle()
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement is correct when a container throws a javax.transaction.TransactionRequiredException?
A. The container throws this exception to a local client to indicate a transaction attribute violation.
B. The container throws this exception to a remote client to indicate a transaction attribute violation.
C. The container throws this exception to a remote client to indicate a transaction rollback.
D. The container throws this exception to a local client to indicate a transaction rollback.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the deployment descriptor tags on their correct purpose.

Answer: QUESTION NO: 13
Which is a valid implementation of a message-driven bean’s ejbCreate method?
A. public void ejbCreate() throws javax.ejb.CreateException {}
B. public void ejbCreate() { return; }
C. public javax.ejb.MessageDrivenBean ejbCreate() {}
D. public void ejbCreate(javax.jms.Message message) {}
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14
Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class? (Choose two.)
A. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent fields.
B. Declare variables for all persistent fields.
C. Provide constructors to initialize the CMP fields.
D. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
E. Implement ejbCreate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create<METHOD> methods.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 15
Which two are requirements for a session bean’s local component interface? (Choose two.)
A. The Bean Provider must define one or more create<METHOD> methods.
B. Method arguments and return types must follow the rules for RMI/IIOP.
C. The interface must extend the javax.ejb.EJBObject interface.
D. Each business method must have a matching method in the session bean’s class.
E. All methods’ throws clauses must not include the java.rmi.RemoteException.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EJB container is not required to support publishing home references in a CORBA CosNaming service.
B. The EJB container must allow IIOP invocations on remote component and home interfaces.
C. The EJB container must allow enterprise beans deployed in the same enterprise archive to access one another directly without having to go through home or remote interfaces.
D. The EJB container must not allow the same enterprise bean to be deployed multiple times.
E. The EJB container must implement the resource manager connection factory classes for resource managers configured with the container.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 17
Given:
4.
first = home.create();

5.
second = home.create();

6.
result = first.isIdentical(second);
Assume home is a valid reference to a session object’s home interface, and all values have been properly declared.
Which two statements are true about the value of result? (Choose two.)
A. If both beans are stateful, the value of result cannot be determined until runtime.
B. If both beans are stateful, result is always true.
C. If both beans are stateless, the value of result cannot be determined until runtime.
D. If both beans are stateful, result is always false.
E. If both beans are stateless, result is always true.
F. If both beans are stateless, result is always false.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 18
Given the methods:
setSessionContext ejbCreate ejbRemove afterBegin
Which two operations are allowed in ALL of the methods, given a stateful session bean with container-managed transaction demarcation? (Choose two.)
A. a call to SessionContext method getEJBHome
B. access to an enterprise bean
C. a call to SessionContext method isCallerInRole
D. JNDI access to environment entries
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 19
Which two can be found in an entity bean’s home interface? (Choose two.)
A. the ejbCreate method declaration
B. create<METHOD> method declarations
C. the findByPrimaryKey method declaration
D. persistent field accessor method declarations
E. ejbSelect<METHOD> method declarations
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the CMR:

and the object bi-directional relations: order1 references statement1 order2 references statement2
After executing: order1.setStatement(order2.getStatement());
which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. order2 references statement1.
B. The order reference of statement2 is null.
C. order1 references statement1.
D. order1 references statement2.

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QUESTION NO: 1

You need to store a Java long primitive attribute, called customerOID, into the session scope. Which two code snippets allow you to insert this value into the session? (Choose two.)
A. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setAttribute(“customerOID”, new Long(customerOID));

B. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setLongAttribute(“customerOID”, new Long(customerOID));

C. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setAttribute(“customerOID”, customerOID); D. long
customerOID = 47L; session.setNumericAttribute(“customerOID”, new
Long(customerOID)); E. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setLongAttribute(“customerOID”, customerOID);

F. long customerOID = 47L; . session.setNumericAttribute(“customerOID”, customerOID);

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2
A developer for the company web site has been told that users may turn off cookie support in their browsers. What must the developer do to ensure that these customers can still use the web application?
A. The developer must ensure that every URL is properly encoded using the appropriate URL rewriting APIs.
B. The developer must provide an alternate mechanism for managing sessions and abandon the HttpSession mechanism entirely.
C. The developer can ignore this issue. Web containers are required to support automatic URL rewriting when cookies are not supported.
D. The developer must add the string id=<sessionid> to the end of every URL to ensure that the conversation with the browser can continue.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Your web application requires the adding and deleting of many session attributes during a complex use case. A bug report has come in that indicates that an important session attribute is being deleted too soon and a NullPointerException is being thrown several interactions after the fact. You have decided to create a session event listener that will log when attributes are being deleted so you can track down when the attribute is erroneously being deleted.
Which listener class will accomplish this debugging goal?
A. Create an HttpSessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeDeleted method and log the attribute name using the getName method on the event object.
B. Create an HttpSessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeRemoved method and log the attribute name using the getName method on the event object.
C. Create an SessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeRemoved method and log the attribute name using the getAttributeName method on the event object.
D. Create an SessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeDeleted method and log the attribute name using the getAttributeName method on the event object.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
As a convenience feature, your web pages include an Ajax request every five minutes to a special servlet that monitors the age of the user’s session. The client-side JavaScript that handles the Ajax callback displays a message on the screen as the session ages. The Ajax call does NOT pass any cookies, but it passes the session ID in a request parameter called sessionID. In addition, assume that your webapp keeps a hashmap of session objects by the ID. Here is a partial implementation of this servlet:
10.
public class SessionAgeServlet extends HttpServlet {

11.
public void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse) throws IOException {

12.
String sessionID = request.getParameter(“sessionID”);

13.
HttpSession session = getSession(sessionID);

14.
long age = // your code here

15.
response.getWriter().print(age);

16.
} … // more code here
47. }
Which code snippet on line 14, will determine the age of the session?
A. session.getMaxInactiveInterval();
B. session.getLastAccessed().getTime() – session.getCreationTime().getTime();
C. session.getLastAccessedTime().getTime() – session.getCreationTime().getTime();
D. session.getLastAccessed() – session.getCreationTime();
E. session.getMaxInactiveInterval() – session.getCreationTime();
F. session.getLastAccessedTime() – session.getCreationTime();
Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 5
Which statement is true about web container session management?
A. Access to session-scoped attributes is guaranteed to be thread-safe by the web container.
B. To activate URL rewriting, the developer must use the HttpServletResponse.setURLRewriting method.
C. If the web application uses HTTPS, then the web container may use the data on the HTTPS request stream to identify the client.
D. The JSESSIONID cookie is stored permanently on the client so that a user may return to the web application and the web container will rejoin that session.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
One of the use cases in your web application uses many session-scoped attributes. At the end of
the use case, you want to clear out this set of attributes from the session object.
Assume that this static variable holds this set of attribute names:
201.
private static final Set<String> USE_CASE_ATTRS;

202.
static {

203.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“customerOID”);

204.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“custMgrBean”);

205.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“orderOID”);

206.
USE_CASE_ATTRS.add(“orderMgrBean”);

207.
}
Which code snippet deletes these attributes from the session object?
A. session.removeAll(USE_CASE_ATTRS);

B. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) { session.remove(attr);
}

C. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.removeAttribute(attr);
}

D. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.deleteAttribute(attr);
}

E. session.deleteAllAttributes(USE_CASE_ATTRS);

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Assume that a news tag library contains the tags lookup and item: lookup Retrieves the latest news headlines and executes the tag body once for each headline. Exposes a NESTED page scoped attribute called headline of type com.example.Headline containing details for that headline. item Outputs the HTML for a single news headline. Accepts an attribute info of type com.example.Headline containing details for the headline to be rendered.Which snippet of JSP code returns the latest news headlines in an HTML table, one per row?
A. <table>
<tr>
<td>
<news:lookup />
<news:item info=”${headline}” />
</td>
</tr>
. </table>

B. <news:lookup />
<table>
<tr>
<td><news:item info=”${headline}” /></td>
</tr>
</table>

C. <table>
. <news:lookup>
. <tr>
. <td><news:item info=”${headline}” /></td>
. </tr>
. </news:lookup>
. </table>

D. <table>
<tr>
. <news:lookup>
. <td><news:item info=”${headline}” /></td>
. </news:lookup>

. </tr> . </table>
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8
Which JSTL code snippet can be used to perform URL rewriting?
A. <a href='<c:url url=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
B. <a href='<c:link url=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
C. <a href='<c:url value=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
D. <a href='<c:link value=”foo.jsp”/>’ />
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Assume the scoped attribute priority does NOT yet exist. Which two create and set a new request- scoped attribute priority to the value “medium”? (Choose two.)
A. ${priority = ‘medium’}
B. ${requestScope[‘priority’] = ‘medium’}
C. <c:set var=”priority” value=”medium” />
D. <c:set var=”priority” scope=”request”>medium</c:set>
E. <c:set var=”priority” value=”medium” scope=”request” />
F. <c:set property=”priority” scope=”request”>medium</c:set>
G. <c:set property=”priority” value=”medium” scope=”request” />
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 10
You are creating a JSP page to display a collection of datA. This data can be displayed in several different ways so the architect on your project decided to create a generic servlet that generates a comma-delimited string so that various pages can render the data in different ways. This servlet takes on request parameter: objectID. Assume that this servlet is mapped to the URL pattern: /WEB-INF/data.
In the JSP you are creating, you need to split this string into its elements separated be commas and generate an HTML <ul> list from the datA. Which JSTL code snippet will accomplish this goal?
A. <c:import varReader=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
<c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />
</c:import>
<ul>
<c:forTokens items’${dataString.split(“,”)}’ var=’item’>
<li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
</ul>

B. <c:import varReader=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
. <c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />
. </c:import>
. <ul>
. <c:forTokens items’${dataString}’ delims=’,’ var=’item’>
. <li>${item}</li>
. </c:forTokens>
. </ul>

C. <c:import var=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
. <c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />

. </c:import>
. <ul>
. <c:forTokens items’${dataString.split(“,”)}’ var=’item’>
. <li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
. </ul>

D. <c:import var=’dataString’ url=’/WEB-INF/data’>
<c:param name=’objectID’ value=’${currentOID}’ />
</c:import>
<ul>
. <c:forTokens items’${dataString}’ delims=’,’ var=’item’>
. <li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
. </ul>

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which three are true about TLD files? (Choose three.)
A. The web container recognizes TLD files placed in any subdirectory of WEB-INF.
B. When deployed inside a JAR file, TLD files must be in the META-INF directory, or a subdirectory of it.
C. A tag handler’s attribute must be included in the TLD file only if the attribute can accept request-time expressions.
D. The web container can generate an implicit TLD file for a tag library comprised of both simple tag handlers and tag files.
E. The web container can automatically extend the tag library map described in a web.xml file by including entries extracted from the web application’s TLD files.
Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 12
Your management has required that all JSPs be created to generate XHTML-compliant content and to facilitate that decision, you are required to create all JSPs using the JSP Document format. In the reviewOrder.jspx page, you need to use several core JSTL tags to process the collection of order items in the customer’s shopping cart. Which JSP code snippets must you use in the reviewOrder.jspx page?
A. <html xmlns:jsp=http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page version=”2.0″>
<jsp:directive.taglib prefix=”c”
uri=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core” />
<!– page content –>
</html>

B. <html xmlns:jsp=”http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page”
version=”2.0″
xmlns:c=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core”>
<!– page content –>
</html>

C. <jsp:root xmlns:jsp=”http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page”
version=”2.0″>
<jsp:directive.taglib prefix=”c”
uri=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core” />
. <!– page content –>
. </jsp:root>

D. <jsp:root xmlns:jsp=”http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page”
version=”2.0″
xmlns:c=”http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core”>
<!– page content –>
. </jsp:root>

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13
Which two JSTL URL-related tags perform URL rewriting? (Choose two.)
A. Url
B. Link
C. Param
D. Import
E. Redirect
Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 14
A custom JSP tag must be able to support an arbitrary number of attributes whose names are unknown when the tag class is designed. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The <body-content> element in the echo tag TLD must have the value JSP.
B. The echo tag handler must define the setAttribute(String key, String value) method.
C. The <dynamic-attributes>true</dynamic-attributes> element must appear in the echo tag TLD.
D. The class implementing the echo tag handler must implement the javax.servlet.jsp.tagext.IterationTag interface.
E. The class implementing the echo tag handler must implement the
F. .javax.servlet.jsp.tagext.DynamicAttributes interface.
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO:15
A developer has used this code within a servlet:
62.
if(request.isUserInRole(“vip”)) {

63.
// VIP-related logic here

64.
}
What else must the developer do to ensure that the intended security goal is achieved?
A. Create a user called vip in the security realm
B. Define a group within the security realm and call it vip
C. Define a security-role named vip in the deployment descriptor
D. Declare a security-role-ref for vip in the deployment descriptor
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Given:
3.
class MyServlet extends HttpServlet {

4.
public void doPut(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws
ServletException, IOException {
5.
// servlet code here …

26.
}
27.
}
If the DD contains a single security constraint associated with MyServlet and its only <http
method> tags and <auth-constraint> tags are:
<http-method>GET</http-method>
<http-method>PUT</http-method>
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>

Which four requests would be allowed by the container? (Choose four.)
A. A user whose role is Admin can perform a PUT.
B. A user whose role is Admin can perform a GET. C. A user whose role is Admin can perform a POST. D. A user whose role is Member can perform a PUT. E. A user whose role is Member can perform a POST. F. A user whose role is Member can perform a GET.
Answer: A,B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 17
What is true about Java EE authentication mechanisms?
A. If your deployment descriptor correctly declares an authentication type of CLIENT_CERT, your users must have a certificate from an official source before they can use your application.
B. If your deployment descriptor correctly declares an authentication type of BASIC, the container automatically requests a user name and password whenever a user starts a new session.
C. If you want your web application to support the widest possible array of browsers, and you want to perform authentication, the best choice of Java EE authentication mechanisms is DIGEST.
D. To use Java EE FORM authentication, you must declare two HTML files in your deployment descriptor, and you must use a predefined action in the HTML file that handles your user’s login.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 18
If you want to use the Java EE platform’s built-in type of authentication that uses a custom HTML page for authentication, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Your deployment descriptor will need to contain this tag: <authmethod> CUSTOM</auth- method>.
B. The related custom HTML login page must be named loginPage.html.
C. When you use this type of authentication, SSL is turned on automatically.
D. You must have a tag in your deployment descriptor that allows you to point to both a login HTML page and an HTML page for handling any login errors.
E. In the HTML related to authentication for this application, you must use predefined variable names for the variables that store the user and password values.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 19
Given this fragment in a servlet:
23.
if(req.isUserInRole(“Admin”)) {
24.
// do stuff
25.
}
And the following fragment from the related Java EE deployment descriptor:

812.
<security-role-ref>
813.
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
814.
<role-link>Administrator</role-link>
815.
</security-role-ref>

900.
<security-role>
901.
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
902.
<role-name>Administrator</role-name>
903.
</security-role>

What is the result?
A. Line 24 can never be reached.
B. The deployment descriptor is NOT valid.
C. If line 24 executes, the user’s role will be Admin.
D. If line 24 executes, the user’s role will be Administrator.
E. If line 24 executes the user’s role will NOT be predictable.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 20
Given the security constraint in a DD:
101.
<security-constraint>

102.
<web-resource-collection>

103.
<web-resource-name>Foo</web-resource-name>

104.
<url-pattern>/Bar/Baz/*</url-pattern>

105.
<http-method>POST</http-method>

106.
</web-resource-collection>

107.
<auth-constraint>

108.
<role-name>DEVELOPER</role-name>

109.
</auth-constraint>

110.
</security-constraint>
And given that “MANAGER” is a valid role-name, which four are true for this security constraint? (Choose four.)
A. MANAGER can do a GET on resources in the /Bar/Baz directory.
B. MANAGER can do a POST on any resource in the /Bar/Baz directory.
C. MANAGER can do a TRACE on any resource in the /Bar/Baz directory.
D. DEVELOPER can do a GET on resources in the /Bar/Baz directory.
E. DEVELOPER can do only a POST on resources in the /Bar/Baz directory.
F. DEVELOPER can do a TRACE on any resource in the /Bar/Baz directory.
Answer: A,C,D,F

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QUESTION 1
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, the Operational VLAN ID shows a blank entry. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The switch may not be supplying inline power.
B. The spanning tree portfast command needs to be removed.
C. The trunk encapsulation is missing. The trunk must be configured for dot1.Q.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the switch.
E. The Operational VLAN ID of the phone always shows as blank. The Admin. VLAN ID should be 110.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-l3 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to “Direct.”
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?
A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Which two troubleshooting tools would initially be the best to use when troubleshooting the PSTN gateway side of a call routing issue while using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT trace output
B. Cisco IOS debug commands
C. Dialed Number Analyzer output
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
E. Cisco IOS show commands

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323 system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco Unified Communications Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS.
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered.
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured.
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

All phones are placed in the Internal_Pt partition. The CSS for all phones contains the partition Internal_Pt, and Vml.CSS contains the voicemail hunt pilot. When a call is placed from extension 2001 to 2002, which statement is true?
A. Extension 2002 will ring.
B. The call will be blocked.
C. The call will be answered by voicemail.
D. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be blocked.
E. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be forwarded to voicemail.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
When a remote endpoint dials in to join a conference that is configured on a Cisco TelePresence Server bridge, the endpoint receives only audio. Other users can successfully join the call with Voice and Video. What is causing this issue?
A. The endpoint does not have the multisite option installed.
B. The endpoint does not have the partition of the bridge in its CSS.
C. The bridge is out of all licenses.
D. The endpoint is assigned a region without enough configured bandwidth for video.
E. The bridge is not able to host video calls.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Cisco TelePresence System EX90-A and EX90-B are in a call. EX90-A tries to call EX90-C. When the call is dialed, EX90-B is put on hold. EX90-A and EX90-C are connected, but there is no merge button on the touch panel. What is causing this issue?
A. The multisite option key is missing.
B. The multisite configuration is missing.
C. The conference option key is missing.
D. The conference configuration is missing.
E. CiscoTelePresence systems cannot make multipoint calls without a Cisco TelePresence Server.
F. The multipoint option key is missing.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which statement indicates something that can cause an inbound PSTN call to an H.323 gateway that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to fail to ring an IP phone?
A. The gateway is not registered in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The gateway IP address that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not match the IP address that is configured at the gateway in the h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr command.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a matching route pattern to match the called number.
D. The gateway is missing the command allow-connections h323 to h323 under the voice service voip configuration.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Some users report that they cannot dial out from headquarters on their Cisco IP Phones to PSTN users, but others can. Which troubleshooting approach is the most direct to isolate the source of the failure of the users that cannot dial out to the PSTN?
A. Use DNA to analyze the dialing permissions of the Cisco IP Phones.
B. Use DNA to generate actual calls to the PSTN.
C. Use RTMT to analyze the dialing permissions of the Cisco IP Phones.
D. Use RTMT to generate actual calls to the PSTN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
You have been presented with a trouble ticket from an end user who works at a remote location that is served by a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. The user reports being unable to place calls to international numbers, but all other calls work properly and other users at this location can place international calls. Which two troubleshooting techniques would be helpful in resolving this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS debug tools
B. Class of Restriction baseline configuration for the user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. show output of the ephone and ephone-dn configurations
D. show output of the voice translation rules in the voice gateway
E. show output for the T1 controller and voice port configuration in the voice gateway

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the digit manipulation path a call takes within the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system from the perspective of a specific directory number, without having the actual device at hand?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Dialed Number Analyzer
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Real Time Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Syslog Viewer
E. Cisco IOS debugs

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
During a business-to-business video call through the Cisco Expressway solution, the internal endpoint can call out to the remote endpoint on the Internet, but it does not receive audio or video. The remote endpoint receives both audio and video. What is causing the issue?
A. The Cisco Expressway does not have a Rich Media Session license.
B. The firewall is blocking SIP signaling.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not configured for business-to-business calling.
D. The firewall is blocking inbound RTP ports.
E. The Advanced Networking option is not installed on the Expressway Edge.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
System A at Company 1 is calling System B at Company 2. The call completes, but only audio and video are present on System A from System B. What are three possible causes? (Choose three.)
A. System A cannot call System B because it is at a different company.
B. There is a firewall in the path that is blocking audio and video traffic from Company 1 to Company 2.
C. The firewall at Company 1 is blocking outgoing traffic.
D. An access list is blocking video and audio somewhere in the video and audio path between System A and System B.
E. System A has turned off the camera and the microphone.

Correct Answer: BDE
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QUESTION 1
Which parameter should be set to prevent H.323 endpoints from registering to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server automatically?
A. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Discover to off.
B. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Protocols, H.323, and set Auto Registration to off.
C. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Allow List, and set Auto Registration to off.
D. On the VCS, navigate to Configuration, Registration, Configuration, and set Auto Registration to off.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. Endpoints can make calls to unknown IP addresses without the VCS querying any neighbors.
B. If the VCS receives a call to an unknown IP address, it queries its neighbors for the remote address and if permitted, it routes the call through the neighbor.
C. Endpoints that are registered directly to the VCS can call only an IP address of a system that is also registered directly to that VCS.
D. Dialing by IP address is not supported on VCS.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
A local gateway is registered to Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server with a prefix of 7. The administrator wants to stop calls from outside the organization being routed through it. Which CPL configuration accomplishes this goal?
A.
B.
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which type of search message appears in the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server search history page when it receives a H.323 call from a RAS-enabled endpoint that originates from an external zone?
A. ARQ
B. SETUP
C. LRQ
D. INVITE
E. OPTIONS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Widgets.com’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You want to avoid unnecessary interworking in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server, such as where a call between two H.323 endpoints is made over SIP, or vice versa. Which setting is recommended?
A. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Reject
B. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. On
C. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Registered only
D. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Off
E. H.323 – SIP interworking modE. Variable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 8
Which two statements about configuring mobile and remote access on Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The traversal server zone on Expressway-C must have a TLS verify subject name configured.
B. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Force encrypted.
C. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
D. The traversal client zone on Expressway-C Media encryption mode must be set to Auto.
E. The traversal client zone and the traversal server zone must be set to SIP TLS with TLS verify mode set to On.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Which configuration does Cisco recommend for the peer address on the Expressway-C secure traversal zone when the Expressway-E has one NIC enabled?
A. Expressway-E internal IP address
B. Expressway-E external IP address
C. Expressway-E internal FQDN
D. Expressway-E external FQDN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
If delegated credentials checking has been enabled and remote workers can register to the VCS Expressway, which statement is true?
A. H.323 message credential checks are delegated.
B. SIP registration proxy mode is set to On in the VCS Expressway.
C. A secure neighbor zone has been configured between the VCS Expressway and the VCS Control.
D. SIP registration proxy mode is set to Off in the VCS Expressway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway-E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 16
What is the standard Layer 3 DSCP media packet value that should be set for Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. CS3 (24)
B. EF (46)
C. AF41 (34)
D. CS4 (32)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
When you configure QoS on VCS, which settings do you apply if traffic through the VCS should be tagged with DSCP AF41?
A. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 32.
B. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 34.
C. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 34.
D. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 32.
E. Set QoS mode to ToS and tag value to 32.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What is the default DSCP/PHB for video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
The administrator at Company X is getting user reports of inconsistent quality on video calls between endpoints registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The administrator runs a wire trace while a video call is taking place and sees that the packets are not set to AF41 for desktop video as they should be. Where should the administrator look next to confirm that the correct DSCP markings are being set?
A. on the MGCP router at the edge of both networks
B. the service parameters in the VCS Control
C. the QoS service parameter in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. on the actual Cisco phone itself because the DSCP setting is not part of its configuration file downloaded at registration
E. The setting cannot be changed for video endpoints that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but only when they are registered to the VCS Control.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD

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When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with ‘deduplication’ enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) without ‘deduplication’ enabled.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 5
Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by installing and correctly configuring the ‘Cascade Connector’ agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named “Round-trip time”.
C. Use the View search box and enter “round”.
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both ingress and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate that Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group Type.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Cascade Profiler’s Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade to report on which of the followinG. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could be becausE. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and Cascade Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in “passthru” mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade Pilot to connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 15
What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when you ‘view members’ of this ‘Undefined’ group’.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can be determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and Cascade will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to detect security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested application delivery paths.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you click the ‘show advanced settings’ checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 18
Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the policy can treat as deviation from normal behavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the “Server Delay” column but shows no value for “Server Delay” in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure “Server Delay” and not functioning correctly.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 20
Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.

Correct Answer: C

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