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CIA Exam Syllabus, Part 2 – IIA:
https://na.theiia.org/certification/CIA-Certification/Pages/CIA-2013-Exam-Syllabus-Part-2.aspx

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QUESTION 1
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
According to the Standards, which of the following is applicable to the internal audit activity\’s quality assurance and
improvement program?
A. Periodic monitoring of the internal audit activity should be done.
B. All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated.
C. An external assessment should be obtained every three years.
D. The review of assurance services should be the primary focus.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An audit of an organization\’s fulfillment department discovered that problems in the order processing system led to a
significant number of orders being fulfilled multiple times. During the exit conference, the head of the department
informed the auditors that the processing system would be enhanced within six months to correct the problems. Which
course of action should the chief audit executive follow?
A. Adjust the scope of the next scheduled audit to determine that the problems have been resolved.
B. Monitor the status of corrective action and schedule a follow-up engagement when appropriate.
C. Meet with the audit committee to determine the appropriate follow-up action.
D. Assess the status of corrective action in a follow-up engagement in six months.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
While conducting a payroll audit, an internal auditor in a large government organization found inadequate segregation in
the duties assigned to the assistant director of personnel. When the auditor explained the risk of fraud, the assistant
director became upset, terminated the interview, and threatened to sue the organization for defamation of character if
the audit engagement was not curtailed. The auditor discussed the situation with the chief audit executive (CAE). The
CAE should then:
A. Curtail the audit engagement to avoid potential legal action. B. Provide a report to senior management recommending a fraud investigation.
C. Continue the original engagement program as planned but include a comment about the assistant director\’s reaction
in the engagement final communication.
D. Add additional testing to determine whether other indicators of fraud exist.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a reason for an internal auditor to prepare an audit plan before the detailed audit work
begins?
A. The objectives of the audit should be set.
B. The organization\’s management should be informed about the work to be performed.
C. Attention should be devoted toward the key audit areas.
D. The timing of the audit should be set.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Because of a new marketing initiative, an organization has reduced requirements for extending credit to new customers.
As a result, outstanding accounts receivable as a percentage of revenue has increased significantly during the past two
years. Which of the following would be least useful in monitoring this finding?
A. Updates from the manager of accounts receivable regarding collection of outstanding receivables.
B. Updates from the information technology division regarding development of a new accounts receivable system.
C. Updates from the controller regarding the status of corrective actions.
D. Updates from the credit and marketing personnel tasked with reevaluating credit policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the
weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18
months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion
dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to
take?
A. Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.
B. Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of
service.
C. Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management\’s action plan.
D. Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables. Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an effective way for an internal auditor to improve communications with the client during a
contentious audit?
A. Encourage the client to participate as a partner in the decision-making process to determine the changes that need to
be made.
B. Clearly explain to the client the role of the internal audit activity in the change process.
C. Obtain the support of the board of directors for proposed changes before discussing the changes with operating
management.
D. Speak privately with key client personnel immediately after proposed changes are announced to address their
concerns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is the most important risk in determining the validity of construction delay claims?
A. Contractor claims may be submitted prior to completion of the work.
B. Contractor claims may include costs considered in the fixed-price portion of the work.
C. Contractor claims may include subcontractor estimates of balances due to the subcontractor.
D. Contractor claims may be understated.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
During an interview with a manager in a company\’s claims department, an auditor noted that the manager became
nervous and changed the subject whenever the auditor raised questions about certain types of claims. The manager\’s
answers were consistent with company policies and procedures. When documenting the interview, the auditor should:
A. Document the manager\’s answers, noting the nature of the nonverbal communication.
B. Document the manager\’s answers but not the nonverbal communication because it is subjective and is not
corroborated.
C. Conclude that the nonverbal communication is persuasive and that sufficient evidence exists to begin a fraud
investigation.
D. Disregard the interview entirely because the verbal and nonverbal communications were contradictory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Once an audit report is drafted, the auditor\’s supervisor should review it primarily to ensure that all:
A. Statements are supported and can be authenticated. B. Recommendations for corrective action are clear.
C. Processes within the audited area were reviewed.
D. Sample sizes appear appropriate for any issues found.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser
places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives
the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items
is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to
the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the
cash receipts process?
A. Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.
B. Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.
C. Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.
D. Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The internal audit activity\’s primary responsibility in a review or examination of the organization by an external
regulatory body is to:
A. Verify that regulatory reviews occur with adequate frequency.
B. Provide follow-up to determine if the regulator\’s findings are appropriately resolved by management.
C. Prepare documentation for the regulator.
D. Document the responses to the regulator\’s findings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which sampling plan requires no additional sampling once the first error is found?
A. Stratified sampling.
B. Attributes sampling.
C. Stop-or-go sampling.
D. Discovery sampling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
An internal auditor was assigned to conduct an inventory control and stock room area engagement. During the audit, the
auditor observed that there were some items that have a shelf life expiration date requirement based on a certificate of
conformance received with the product. The certificates of conformance are kept on file in the inventory area office and
the expiration date is verified at the time the item is taken from stock. The auditor reviewed the items in the stock room
and also on the production floor for the expiration dates to see if there was any expired product. All items with a shelf life
requirement were found to be within the expiration date requirement. Which of the following recommendations would be
appropriate?
A. Take no action, because all the items were within the expiration date requirement, and no corrective action is
needed.
B. Permit production staff the access to files where the certificates of conformity are kept, so they can choose the items
with the closest expiration date.
C. Determine the cost of inventory for the items that have a shelf life and apply a new policy regarding inventory levels
to be maintained (i.e., minimums, maximums, reorder points etc.).
D. Add to the product label a andquot;use by dateandquot; line, enter the expiration at the time of receipt, and perform
periodic inventory checks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An audit engagement objective at a manufacturer is to determine the quality of raw materials purchased. Which of the
following actions would best enable an internal auditor to satisfy this objective?
A. Analyze the provision for sales allowances.
B. Analyze the percentage of scrap incurred during production.
C. Research the rationale for customer returns.
D. Evaluate the volume and characteristics of products rejected during processing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit
departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance,
which of the following statements is true?
A. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.
B. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only
C. The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review
the reports after they are issued.
D. The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be included in an internal audit department\’s quality assurance and improvementprogram?
1.
Ongoing internal assessments of the performance of the internal audit department.
2.
Periodic internal reviews through self-assessments.
3.
Assessments conducted by a qualified external reviewer at least once every five years.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
The internal audit activity of an investment company received a request to provide assurance on the risk management
process. Preliminary discussion with senior management revealed that separate functions within the organization
perform some form of risk management activities. Which of the following is the most effective tool for ensuring that risk
management activities are coordinated among these functions?
A. Delphi technique.
B. Assurance map.
C. Facilitated workshop.
D. Analytical reviews.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An organization has a large number of vendors supplying goods to its various branches across the region. The code of
conduct statements signed by the employees specify that the employees or their families will not sell goods to the
organization. However, during the internal audit of a branch, the internal auditor suspected that some of the employees
may be supplying goods to the organization contrary to the code of conduct. The chief audit executive has requested
that a thorough review be completed to identify the potential employee vendors. Of the following tests, it would be least
useful to compare [List A] with [List B].
[List A] [List B]
A. Vendor bank account numbers Employee bank account numbers
B. Dates of payments to vendors Dates of salary payments to employees
C. Addresses of vendors from the vendor database Addresses of employees from the employee database D. Vendor names Employee names
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is most appropriate when conducting an interview during the course of a fraud investigation?
A. Schedule the interview well in advance.
B. Explain the detailed purpose to the interviewee.
C. Assume that the interviewee is guilty.
D. Have a witness present during the interview.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
In addition to the internal auditor, which of the following parties should be present at an exit or closing conference?
1.
Audit committee members.
2.
The external auditor.
3.
The management responsible for the areas covered by the engagement.
4.
The chief executive officer.
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a preventive control for fraud?
A. Determining if the number of manually prepared disbursement checks is high.
B. Reconciling the purchase orders with the requisitions.
C. Verifying that new vendors appear on the vendor pre-approved list. D. Conducting an inventory count of the warehouse.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The most effective procedure to verify compliance with a requirement that materials be purchased from the lowest-
priced source is to compare:
A. Prices paid for selected materials with prices listed on related purchase orders.
B. Bids obtained for selected purchases with related purchase orders.
C. Vendors\’ current prices with prices listed on related purchase orders.
D. Approved vendor lists with bids obtained for selected purchases.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
An organization\’s policies allow buyers to authorize expenditures up to $50,000 without any other approval. Which of
the following audit procedures would be most effective in determining if fraud in the form of payments to fictitious
companies has occurred?
A. Use generalized audit software to list all purchases over $50,000 to determine whether they were properly approved.
B. Develop a snapshot technique to trace all transactions by suspected buyers.
C. Use generalized audit software to take a random sample of all expenditures under $50,000 to determine whether
they were properly approved.
D. Use generalized audit software to select a sample of paid invoices to new vendors and examine evidence that shows
that services or goods were received.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
The scope of a business process review primarily involves:
A. Appraising the environment and comparing against established criteria.
B. Assessing the organization\’s system of internal controls.
C. Reviewing routine financial information and assessing the appropriateness of various accounting treatments.
D. Evaluating organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of transaction flows.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
As part of an operational audit, an auditor compared records of current inventory with usage during the prior two-year
period and determined that the spare parts
inventory was excessive. What step should the auditor perform first?
A. Determine the effects of a stock-out on the organization\’s profitability.
B. Determine whether a clear policy exists for setting inventory limits.
C. Determine who approved the purchase orders for the spare parts.
D. Determine whether purchases were properly recorded.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Why should internal auditors develop a strong relationship with the external auditors?
A. External auditors offer an additional layer of approval to internal auditors\’ reports.
B. External auditors can help improve the effectiveness of internal control sampling techniques.
C. External auditors can offer an independent and knowledgeable viewpoint.
D. External auditors can share information gained from work with similar clients.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, the internal audit activity\’s decision to defer follow-up
of recommendations and management\’s corrective actions until the next scheduled engagement for the area is justified
when:
A. The reported findings or recommendations are significant enough to require immediate action by management.
B. The action taken by management to address the recommendation is sufficient when weighed against the importance
of the finding.
C. Management has adequately understood and appropriately accepted the risk of not taking action to implement the
recommendation.
D. The significance of the finding or recommendation will allow auditors to perform monitoring by receiving periodic
updates from management on corrective actions taken.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department
of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and
financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in
decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security
at that level. C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the
system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
R1 and R2 are ASBRs in the same area, each with an equal cost external path to the same external network prefix. R1 advertises an external route into OSPF
with a Type 1 metric. R2 advertises an external route into OSPF with a Type 2 metric.
Which route would be preferred?
A. R1’s route is preferred because Type 1 metrics take into account the external cost only.
B. R1’s route is preferred because Type 1 metrics take into account the internal and external cost.
C. R2’s route is preferred because Type 2 metrics take into account the internal and external cost.
D. R2’s route is preferred because Type 2 metrics take into account the external cost only.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which LSA type will Router R2 inject into Area 1?
A. Type 3 LSA
B. Type 4 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 7 LSA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.6 {
nssa {
default-lsa default-metric 10;
area-range 184.23.12.0/24;
}
interface ge-1/1/4;
}
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show ospf database
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000004 749 0x22 0x87c2 60 Router 192.168.0.3 192.168.0.3 0x80000004 399 0x22 0x94b5 60 Summary *10.0.0.0
192.168.0.2 0x80000003 19 0x22 0xe2e4 28 Summary *192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 1100 0x22 0xbda7 28
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.6
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.1 0x80000004 404 0x20 0x76db 60 Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 1802 0x20 0x319b 48 Summary *11.0.0.0
192.168.0.2 0x80000002 2504 0x20 0xf5d3 28 Summary *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 2153 0x20 0xc5a0 28 Summary *192.168.0.3 192.168.0.2
0x80000002 398 0x20 0xc79d 28 NSSA *0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000001 11 0x20 0xcbf1 36 NSSA 184.23.12.0 192.168.0.1 0x80000002 447 0x28 0xb93f 36
OSPF AS SCOPE link state database Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern *184.23.12.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 11 0x22 0x28d6 36 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 injects a Type 3 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
B. R2 is an ABR.
C. R2 injects a Type 5 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
D. R2 is an ASBR.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of LSA will be seen on router A for routes originating in Customer A’s network?
A. Type 7 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 1 LSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
A. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
B. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea link, so it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
C. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-
point interface.
D. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not point-to-point.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic destined for R2 will be blackholed.
B. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R2-R4 path.
C. Traffic destined for R2 will reach R2.
D. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R3-R4 path.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about using an OSPF import policy?
A. Import policies are not allowed in OSPF, applying the policy will do nothing.
B. Applying an import policy to OSPF may block normal LSA flooding.
C. Import policies are allowed only for external route types.
D. Applying this policy will cause a commit failure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding the SPF algorithm?A. The SPF algorithm is run on a per-domain basis.
B. If you apply an import policy to OSPF, it keeps LSAs from being flooded, and the SPF calculation can be affected.
C. There are two databases used in the calculation, the link-state database and the tree database.
D. The SPF calculation is run on a per-area basis on each router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are asked to configure graceful restart in your network.
Which OSPF LSA type would you expect to see in the LSDB?
A. Type 8
B. Type 9
C. Type 10
D. Type 11
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which answer is correct?
A. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
B. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
C. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show ospf database network extensive
OSPF link state database, area 0.0.0.1
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Network 10.222.1.1 192.168.20.1 0x80000002 813 0x2 0x 32 mask 255.255.255.0 attached router 192.168.20.1
attached router 192.168.40.1
Aging timer 00:46:27
Installed 00:13:32 ago, expires in 00:46:27, sent 1w5d 01:07:09 ago
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the OSPF network LSA?
A. The ID field value shows the router ID of the advertising router.
B. The ID field is the local interface IP address from which the LSA will be advertised.
C. The options field indicates this is a Type 2 LSA.
D. The output shows that 192.168.20.1 is the designated router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show log ospf
Sep 19 00:22:13.420315 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:14.475671 OSPF periodic xmit from 14.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:14.855490 OSPF periodic xmit from 12.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 84 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:14.857304 OSPF packet ignoreD. no matching interface from 12.0.0.1, IFL 85 Sep 19
00:22:17.386726 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:20.855690 OSPF packet ignoreD. subnet
mismatch from 10.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/1.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:20.856108 OSPF rcvd Hello 10.0.0.2 -> 224.0.0.5 (ge-0/0/1.0 IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:20.856177 Version 2, length 44, ID 10.0.0.2, area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:20.856229 checksum 0x0, authtype 0
Sep 19 00:22:20.856299 mask 255.255.255.252, hello_ivl 10, opts 0x12, prio 128 Sep 19 00:22:20.856352 dead_ivl 40, DR 0.0.0.0, BDR 0.0.0.0 Sep 19
00:22:21.752438 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:22.013285 OSPF packet ignoreD. area mismatch (0.0.0.1) from 12.0.0.2 on intf ge- 0/0/4.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:22.013749 OSPF rcvd Hello 12.0.0.2 -> 224.0.0.5 (ge-0/0/4.0 IFL 84 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:22.013804 Version 2, length 44, ID 10.0.0.2, area 0.0.0.1 Sep 19 00:22:22.013890 checksum 0xd51e, authtype 0
Sep 19 00:22:22.013944 mask 255.255.255.252, hello_ivl 10, opts 0x12, prio 128 Sep 19 00:22:22.014012 dead_ivl 40, DR 12.0.0.2, BDR 0.0.0.0 Sep 19
00:22:22.016909 OSPF packet ignoreD. no matching interface from 12.0.0.2, IFL 85 Sep 19 00:22:22.434956 OSPF hello from 11.0.0.2 (IFL 83, area 0.0.0.0)
absorbed Sep 19 00:22:23.045916 OSPF periodic xmit from 12.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 84 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19 00:22:23.047959 OSPF packet ignoreD. no
matching interface from 12.0.0.1, IFL 85 Sep 19
00:22:23.309957 OSPF periodic xmit from 11.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 83 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:23.528614 OSPF periodic xmit from 14.0.0.1 to 224.0.0.5 (IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:25.772835 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:29.950015 OSPF hello from 11.0.0.2 (IFL 83,
area 0.0.0.0) absorbed Sep 19
00:22:30.622112 OSPF packet ignoreD. MTU mismatch from 11.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/2.0 area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:30.713279 OSPF packet ignoreD. subnet
mismatch from 10.0.0.2 on intf ge-0/0/1.0 area 0.0.0.0
Sep 19 00:22:30.713432 OSPF rcvd Hello 10.0.0.2 -> 224.0.0.5 (ge-0/0/1.0 IFL 75 area 0.0.0.0) Sep 19
00:22:30.713503 Version 2, length 44, ID 10.0.0.2, area 0.0.0.0 Sep 19 00:22:30.713553 checksum 0x0, authtype 0
Sep 19 00:22:30.713622 mask 255.255.255.252, hello_ivl 10, opts 0x12, prio 128 Sep 19 00:22:30.713677 dead_ivl 40, DR 0.0.0.0, BDR 0.0.0.0 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is preventing the OSPF adjacency on interface ge-0/0/4 from forming?
A. area mismatch
B. subnet mismatch
C. MTU mismatch
D. authentication mismatch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.3 {
stub default-metric 10 no-summaries;
interface ge-0/1/1.0;
}
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the output in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. R2 is an ABR and will send a Type 7 LSA 0/0 route down into the nonbackbone area.
B. R2 is an ABR and will send a Type 3 LSA 0/0 route down into the nonbackbone area.
C. R2 will not send a Type 3 LSA 0/0 route into the nonbackbone area.
D. R2 will add a metric cost of 10 to the existing metric of a 0/0 route it receives from the backbone area and then send it into the nonbackbone area in a Type 5
LSA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show ospf route
Topology default Route Table:Prefix Path Route NH Metric NextHop Nexthop
Type Type Type Interface Address/LSP
192.168.1.0/24 Intra Network IP 10 ge-0/0/1.0
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two configurations result in the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. [edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 10g;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
}
B. [edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 1g;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
}
C. [edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 1m;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0 {
metric 10;
}
}
D. [edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
reference-bandwidth 100m;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
}
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, you are asked to prevent the 184.16.1.0/24 route from entering the backbone.
Which configuration statements would accomplish the task?
A. On router R1, issue the set protocols ospf area 3 nssa area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
B. On router R3, issue the set protocols ospf area 0 area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
C. On router R3, issue the set protocols ospf area 3 area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
D. On router R3, issue the set protocols ospf area 3 nssa area-range 184.16.1.0/24 restrict command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, R5 is receiving five 200.1.1.x routes from the RIP router, and is advertising them into Area 1 using an export policy. You do not want any of the RIP
routes to be in the routing table of R1.
Which two solutions meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. On R1, configure an export policy to reject the routes.
B. On R1, configure an import policy to reject the routes.
C. On R1, configure each address as a martian route.
D. On R1, configure the no-nssa-abr option.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, a customer wants to configure an EBGP connection to two different routers in a neighboring autonomous system. The goal of this configuration is to
use per-prefix load balancing across both EBGP links.
Which configuration accomplishes this goal?
A. {master:0}[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multihop;
peer-as 65532;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
}
B. {master:0}[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multipath;
peer-as 65532;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
}
C. {master:0}[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multihop;
local-address 192.168.2.1;
peer-as 65532;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
}
[email protected]# show routing-options
static {
route 0.0.0.0 next-hop [ 10.10.2.2 10.20.2.2 ];
}
autonomous-system 65432;
D. {master:0}[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols bgp
group External {
multihop;local-address 192.168.2.1;
peer-as 65532;
multipath;
neighbor 10.10.2.2;
neighbor 10.20.2.2;
}
[email protected]# show routing-options
static {
route 0.0.0.0 next-hop [ 10.10.2.2 10.20.2.2 ];
}
autonomous-system 65432;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, R4 in AS 100 is sending routes 20.0.0.0/8 and 10.0.0.0/8. R3 sees the routes but R5 does not.
What must be configured on the R3 router for the R5 router to install the routes?
A. a next-hop self policy
B. as-override toward the R5 router
C. as-loops 2
D. local-as 100
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to configure an OSPF virtual link that connects remote Area 4 to the backbone.
Referring to the exhibit, what are two requirements for an OSPF virtual link to operate correctly? (Choose two.)
A. A virtual link configuration on the ABR between Areas 0 and 1 must include transit area 1.
B. The interface of the transit area must be of type vt.
C. A virtual link configuration on the ABR between Areas 0 and 1 must be the interface address of the neighbor on the far end.
D. A virtual link configuration on the ABR between Areas 0 and 1 must be the router ID (RID) of the neighbor on the far end.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, R5 is receiving five 200.1.1.x routes from the RIP router, and is advertising them into Area 1 using an export policy. You want to summarize the RIP
routes into Area 0 with the most specific prefix.
Which configuration will accomplish goal?
A. [edit protocols]
[email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
area-range 200.1.1.0/29;
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
B. [edit protocols]
[email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
area-range 200.1.1.0/28;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
C. [edit protocols]
[email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
area-range 200.1.1.0/29;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
D. [edit protocols]
[email protected]# show
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
area-range 200.1.1.0/28;
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa type-7;
}
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show bgp summary
Groups: 3 Peers: 3 Down peers: 0
Table Tot Paths Act Paths Suppressed History Damp State Pending inet.0 10 8 0 0 0 0 inet6.0 4 3 0 0 0 0
Peer AS InPkt OutPkt OutQ Flaps Last Up/Dwn State|
#Active/Received/Accepted/Damped…
10.0.3.5 65550 41 52 0 2 17:45 5/5/5/0 0/0/0/0
172.16.0.6 65010 52 42 0 2 31 Establ
inet.0: 3/5/5/0
inet6.0: 3/4/4/0
2001:ffff::3:5 65550 43 44 0 4 17:53 Establ
inet6.0: 0/0/0/0
[email protected]>
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the output of the show bgp summary command shown in the exhibit.
From which BGP peer is the router receiving IPv6 routes?
A. 10.0.3.5
B. 172.16.0.6
C. 2001:ffff::3:5
D. 2001:ffff:3:5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show dot1x interface detail ge-0/0/2.0 ge-0/0/2.0 RolE. Authenticator
Administrative statE. Auto
Supplicant modE. Multiple
Number of retries: 3
Quiet perioD. 60 seconds
Transmit perioD. 30 seconds
Mac Radius: Enabled
Mac Radius Restrict: Enabled
Reauthentication: Enabled
Configured Reauthentication interval: 3600 seconds
Supplicant timeout: 30 seconds
Server timeout: 30 seconds
Maximum EAPOL requests: 2
Guest VLAN member: <not configured>
Number of connected supplicants: 2
[email protected]>
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Host 1, Host 2, and Host 3 are connected to Switch A on interface ge-0/0/2. Host 1 and Host 2 do not support 802.1X. They can authenticate and connect to the
Internet. Host 3 was added and it supports 802.1X; however, it is unable to authenticate.
Referring to the exhibit, how do you allow Host 3 to authenticate to the network but maintain secure access?
A. Enable fallback authentication for 802.1X.
B. Disable MAC RADIUS Restrict option on ge-0/0/2.
C. Disable MAC RADIUS option on ge-0/0/2.
D. Enable Administrative mode for 802.1X.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show pim join extensive
InstancE. PIM.master Family: INET
R = Rendezvous Point Tree, S = Sparse, W = Wildcard
Group: 224.1.1.1
SourcE. *
RP: 192.168.1.1
Flags: sparse,rptree,wildcard
Upstream interfacE. Local
Upstream neighbor: Local
Upstream statE. Local RP
Downstream neighbors:
InterfacE. so-0/0/0.0
10.0.1.2 StatE. Join Flags: SRW Timeout: 176
Group: 224.1.1.1
SourcE. 10.0.5.2
Flags: sparse,spt
Upstream interfacE. unknown (no nexthop)
Upstream neighbor: unknown
Upstream statE. Local RP
Keepalive timeout: 106
Downstream neighbors:
InterfacE. so-0/0/0.010.0.1.2 StatE. Join Flags: S Timeout: 176
InstancE. PIM.master Family: INET6
R = Rendezvous Point Tree, S = Sparse, W = Wildcard — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
The CLI output shown in the exhibit was taken from the RP in a PIM-SM network.
Which statement explains the output shown in the exhibit?
A. No tunnel PIC is installed on the RP router.
B. 192.168.1.1 is not a local IP address on the RP router.
C. Multicast traffic is arriving on the so-0/0/0.0 interface.
D. The router does not have a unicast route to 10.0.5.2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
— Exhibit —
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *10.0.3.4 10.0.3.4 0x8000000d 30 0x22 0x8d11 132 bits 0x0, link count 9 id 10.1.1.0, data 255.255.255.0, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 10.0.4.8, data 255.255.255.252, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 10.0.2.10, data 10.0.2.10, Type Transit (2)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 172.16.0.6, data 172.16.0.5, Type Transit (2)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 1
id 10.0.3.4, data 255.255.255.255, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 0
id 10.0.9.7, data 10.0.2.18, Type PointToPoint (1)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 65
id 10.0.2.16, data 255.255.255.252, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 65
id 10.0.3.3, data 10.0.2.6, Type PointToPoint (1)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 2
id 10.0.2.4, data 255.255.255.252, Type Stub (3)
Topology count: 0, Default metriC. 2
Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. PointToPoint, Node ID. 10.0.3.3
MetriC. 2, Bidirectional
TypE. PointToPoint, Node ID. 10.0.9.7
MetriC. 65, Bidirectional
TypE. Transit, Node ID. 172.16.0.6
MetriC. 1, Bidirectional
TypE. Transit, Node ID. 10.0.2.10
MetriC. 1, Bidirectional
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the output of an OSPF router LSA.
Which interface ID represents the router’s loopback address?
A. ID 10.1.1.0
B. ID 10.0.3.4
C. ID 10.0.3.3
D. ID 10.0.2.4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
— Exhibit —
{master:0}[edit]
[email protected]# show class-of-service
classifiers {
inet-precedence normal-traffic {
forwarding-class best-effort {
loss-priority low code-points [ my1 my2 ];
}
}
}
code-point-aliases {
inet-precedence {
my1 000;
my2 001;
cs1 010;
cs2 011;
cs3 100;
cs4 101;
cs5 111;
cs6 111;
}
}
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, you see a configuration for CoS. Incoming traffic with specific IP precedence bits should be mapped to a forwarding class named best-effort. A
classifier named normal-traffic is defined.
What must you add to complete this configuration?
A. Include the option q-pic-large-buffer under the chassis hierarchy to accommodate the new code points.
B. Apply classifier normal traffic to the interface hierarchy under the class-of-service stanza.
C. Configure a rewrite marker on the ingress Gigabit Ethernet interface.
D. Add code point values for the expedited-forwarding forwarding class as well as the best- effort forwarding class.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show configuration routing-options autonomous-system 65550;
[email protected]> show configuration protocols bgp
group ibgp {
type internal;
neighbor 10.0.3.5;
}
group ibgpv6 {
type internal;
local-address 2001:ffff::3:4;
neighbor 2001:ffff::3:5;
}
group as65010 {
family inet {
unicast;
}
family inet6 {
unicast;
}
export as65010-out;
peer-as 65010;
neighbor 172.16.0.6;
}
[email protected]> show configuration policy-options
policy-statement as65010-out {
term locally-originated {
from as-path local-only;
then {
metric 7000;
}
}
term from-as65222 {
from as-path as65222-orig;
then as-path-prepend “65550 65550 65550 65550”;
}
term transit-as701 {
from as-path transit-as701;
then {
metric 6;
}
}
then accept;
}
as-path local-only “(.*)”;
as-path as65222-orig “.* 65222”;
as-path transit-as701 “.* 701 .*”;
[email protected]> show route advertising-protocol bgp 172.16.0.6
inet.0: 43 destinations, 47 routes (43 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) Prefix Nexthop MED Lclpref AS path
* 10.0.2.0/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.2.4/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.2.8/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.2.16/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.3.3/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.3.4/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.3.5/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.4.8/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.8.8/30 Self 7000 I
* 10.0.9.9/32 Self 7000 I
* 10.255.255.1/32 Self 7000 I
* 64.142.88.0/24 Self 7000 I
* 130.130.0.0/16 Self 6 65222 46375 701 14203 I
* 131.131.131.0/24 Self 6 65222 46375 701 14203 I
* 132.132.0.0/25 Self 6 65222 46375 701 32934 I
* 133.133.0.0/25 Self 6 65222 46375 701 32934 I
* 134.134.0.0/25 Self 65222 46375 14203 I
* 135.135.0.0/25 Self 65222 46375 14203 14203 I
* 172.16.0.4/30 Self 7000 I
* 172.16.0.12/30 Self 7000 I
* 172.16.200.0/30 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 192.0.2.0/24 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 192.168.50.0/24 Self 7000 I
* 192.168.253.0/24 Self 7000 I
* 200.200.0.0/16 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 200.200.0.1/32 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 200.200.1.1/32 172.16.0.6 7000 I
* 200.200.200.200/32 172.16.0.6 7000 I
inet6.0: 23 destinations, 28 routes (23 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) Prefix Nexthop MED Lclpref AS path* ::172.16.0.4/126 Self 7000 I
* 2001:1:1::/64 Self 7000 I
* 2001:1:2::/64 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::3:3/128 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::3:4/128 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::3:5/128 Self 7000 I
* 2001:ffff::9:7/128 Self 7000 I
[email protected]>
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring an EBGP peer in a transit environment. You must advertise routes learned from other EBGP peers in your AS. Any routes originated from
within your AS should have a MED of 7000 set. Any routes that originate in AS65222 should be prepended four times. Any routes that transit AS701 should have a
MED set to 6. This scenario results in the unintended advertisement of internal 10.0.0.0/8 networks to your peer.
What caused the accidental advertisement of internal networks to your EBGP peer?
A. Your AS number of 65550 is a private AS number.
B. The BGP group as65010 is configured for both family inet unicast and family inet6 unicast protocol families.
C. The export policy as65010-out is misconfigured.
D. The as-path local-only includes a misconfigured regular expression.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
— Exhibit —
[edit]
[email protected]# run show ospf database external lsa-id 71.23.48.0 extensive OSPF AS SCOPE link state database
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern 71.23.48.0 67.176.255.5 0x80000001 114 0x22 0x171b 36 mask 255.255.248.0 Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. 2, MetriC. 0, Fwd addr: 0.0.0.0, TaG. 0.0.0.0 Aging timer 00:58:06 Installed 00:01:53 ago, expires in 00:58:06, sent 00:01:53 ago Last changed 00:01:53
ago, Change count:
Extern 71.23.48.0 67.176.255.7 0x8000005a 487 0x22 0x587e 36 mask 255.255.248.0 Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. 2, MetriC. 0, Fwd addr: 0.0.0.0, TaG. 0.0.0.0 Aging timer 00:51:52 Installed 00:08:01 ago, expires in 00:51:53, sent 00:07:59 ago Last changed 2d 19:33:58
ago, Change count: 1
Extern 71.23.48.0 67.176.255.8 0x8000005c 540 0x22 0xf73e 36 mask 255.255.248.0 Topology default (ID 0)
TypE. 1, MetriC. 30, Fwd addr: 0.0.0.0, TaG. 0.0.0.0 Aging timer 00:51:00 Installed 00:08:59 ago, expires in 00:51:00, sent 00:08:59 ago Last changed 00:08:59
ago, Change count:
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, a router is receiving three external LSAs for the prefix 71.23.48.0.
Which path is preferred?
A. The path through 67.176.255.5 is preferred.
B. The path through 67.176.255.7 is preferred.
C. The path through 67.176.255.8 is preferred.
D. The paths through 67.176.255.7 and 67.176.255.8 become active to allow load-balancing.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
— Exhibit

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the 10.100/16 prefix is introduced at autonomous system 1 (AS1) and propagated through to AS3. Router A in AS3 receives two different paths to
these prefixes, one through AS2 and the other through AS4. No BGP attributes have been altered.Which path would router A prefer for the 10.100/16 prefix?
A. the route with the lowest interface address for the EBGP peering session
B. the route with the lowest local preference
C. the route to the EBGP peer that has the lowest RID
D. the route from the EBGP peer that arrived first
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
— Exhibit —
[edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 1.1.1.1;
[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/7.0;
}
[edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 2.2.2.2;
[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/8.0 {
priority 200;
}
}
[edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 222.255.255.255;
[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/8.0;
}
[edit]
[email protected]# show routing-options router-id
router-id 239.255.255.255;
[edit]
[email protected]# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/6.0 {
priority 0;
}
}
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
All four routers in the exhibit are in the same broadcast domain. The routers were powered on at the same time.
Based on the configurations, which devices are the DR and the BDR
A. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
B. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
C. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show interfaces ge-0/0/0 extensive | find “Queue counters” Queue counters: Queued packets Transmitted packets Dropped packets 0 best-effort
35244 35244 0 1 expedited-fo 258963 59852 199111
2 assured-forw 0 0 0
3 network-cont 1625847 1625847 0
…
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
You recently deployed an SRX Series Gateway in your network. It uses the default class of service configuration.
Based on the output in the exhibit, what reason explains the packet drops in Queue 1?
A. Interface ge-0/0/0 should be used only for management network operations.
B. Queue 0 has higher priority than Queue 1.
C. A policer is reclassifying all traffic into Queue 1.
D. No bandwidth reservation exists on Queue 1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
— Exhibit —
ar 16 19:12:58.291474 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.291624 BGP RECV message type 1 (Open) length 59 Mar 16
19:12:58.291688 BGP RECV version 4 as 2 holdtime 90 id 192.168.2.1 parmlen 30 Mar 16 19:12:58.291752 BGP RECV MP capability AFI=1, SAFI=1 Mar 16
19:12:58.291802 BGP RECV Refresh capability, code=128 Mar 16 19:12:58.291850 BGP RECV Refresh capability, code=2 Mar 16 19:12:58.291915 BGP RECV
Restart capability, code=64, time=120, flags= Mar 16 19:12:58.291969 BGP RECV 4 Byte AS-Path capability (65), as_num 2 Mar 16 19:12:58.292385 advertising
receiving-speaker only capabilty to neighbor 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.292452 bgp_senD. sending 59 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2)
Mar 16
19:12:58.292522
Mar 16 19:12:58.292522 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.292601 BGP SEND message type 1 (Open) length 59 Mar 16
19:12:58.293053 BGP SEND version 4 as 1 holdtime 90 id 192.168.2.1 parmlen 30 Mar 16 19:12:58.293124 BGP SEND MP capability AFI=1, SAFI=1 Mar 16
19:12:58.293173 BGP SEND Refresh capability, code=128 Mar 16 19:12:58.293221 BGP SEND Refresh capability, code=2 Mar 16 19:12:58.293284 BGP SEND
Restart capability, code=64, time=120, flags= Mar 16 19:12:58.293336 BGP SEND 4 Byte AS-Path capability (65), as_num 1 Mar 16
19:12:58.293517 bgp_senD. sending 19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.293573 Mar 16 19:12:58.293573 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 ->
172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.293665 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16 19:12:58.296781 Mar 16 19:12:58.296781 BGP RECV
172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.296897 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16 19:12:58.297451 bgp_senD. sending
19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.297528
Mar 16 19:12:58.297528 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.297600 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:12:58.298102 bgp_senD. sending 23 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16 19:12:58.298185
Mar 16 19:12:58.298185 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:12:58.298273 BGP SEND message type 2 (Update) length 23 Mar 16
19:12:58.298322 BGP SEND End of RIB. AFI 1 SAFI 1 Mar 16 19:12:58.301834
Mar 16 19:12:58.301834 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.301957 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:12:58.302034 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 19 octets 0 updates 0 routes Mar 16 19:12:58.304594
Mar 16 19:12:58.304594 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:12:58.304702 BGP RECV message type 2 (Update) length 23 Mar 16
19:12:58.304765 BGP RECV End of RIB. AFI 1 SAFI 1 Mar 16 19:12:58.304848 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 23
octets 1 update 0 routes
Mar 16 19:13:22.968415 bgp_senD. sending 19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16
19:13:22.968586
Mar 16 19:13:22.968586 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:13:22.968675 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:13:26.901339 Mar 16 19:13:26.901339 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:13:26.901464 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive)
length 19 Mar 16 19:13:26.901543 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 19 octets 0 updates 0 routes Mar 16 19:13:51.335927
bgp_senD. sending 19 bytes to 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) Mar 16
19:13:51.348180
Mar 16 19:13:51.348180 BGP SEND 172.14.10.1+179 -> 172.14.10.2+51230 Mar 16 19:13:51.348296 BGP SEND message type 4 (KeepAlive) length 19 Mar 16
19:13:53.844160 Mar 16 19:13:53.844160 BGP RECV 172.14.10.2+51230 -> 172.14.10.1+179 Mar 16 19:13:53.844329 BGP RECV message type 4 (KeepAlive)
length 19 Mar 16 19:13:53.844392 bgp_read_v4_messagE. done with 172.14.10.2 (External AS 2) received 19 octets 0 updates 0 routes — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Looking at the traceoptions output, what is the current keepalive timer set for in BGP?
A. 1 second
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 90 seconds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
— Exhibit
pass4itsure question

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, a legacy IP phone is attached to Switch-1. The phone does not support LLDP- MED, but does allow configuration using DHCP. Existing
network CoS policies dictate that VoIP traffic must use VLAN 10.
Which two actions put VoIP traffic onto VLAN 10? (Choose two.)
A. Configure protocols cdp on Switch-1.
B. Manually configure the voice VLAN on the IP phone.
C. Configure vlan 1 under forwarding-options bootp.
D. Configure interface ge-0/0/5 under forwarding-options bootp.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 33
— Exhibit —
[email protected]# show protocols mstp
configuration-name region1;
bridge-priority 16k;
msti 1 {
bridge-priority 16k;
vlan [10 20];
}
msti 2 {
bridge-priority 8k;
vlan [30 40];
}[email protected]# show protocols mstp
configuration-name region1;
bridge-priority 8k;
msti 1 {
bridge-priority 16k;
vlan [10 20];
}
msti 2 {
bridge-priority 8k;
vlan [30 40];
}
[email protected]>monitor traffic interface xe-0/0/0 no-resolve extensive
10:36:00.594220 Out STP 802.1s, Rapid STP, CIST Flags [Forward, Agreement], CIST bridge-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41.8215, length 118
message-age 0.00s, max-age 20.00s, hello-time 2.00s, forwarding-delay 15.00s CIST root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, ext-pathcost 0 int-pathcost 0, port-role
Designated CIST regional-root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41
MSTP Configuration Name regio-2, revision 0, digest ca136a235706b316c8db8f921067a68f CIST remaining-hops 20
MSTI 1, Flags [Proposal, Forward, Agreement], port-role Designated MSTI regional-root-id 4001.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, pathcost 0 MSTI bridge-prio 4, port-prio 8,
hops 2010:36:00.594220
10:36:00.594223 Out 802.1s, Rapid STP, CIST Flags [Forward, Agreement], CIST bridge-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41.8215, length 118
message-age 0.00s, max-age 20.00s, hello-time 2.00s, forwarding-delay 15.00s CIST root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, ext-pathcost 0 int-pathcost 0, port-role
Designated CIST regional-root-id 4000.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41
MSTP Configuration Name regio-2, revision 0, digest ca136a235706b316c8db8f921067a68f CIST remaining-hops 20
MSTI 1, Flags [Proposal, Forward, Agreement], port-role Designated MSTI regional-root-id 4001.5c:5e:ab:72:da:41, pathcost 0 MSTI bridge-prio 4, port-prio 8,
hops 20 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, a customer notices that MSTP is not converging on MSTI 2. To troubleshoot the problem, the customer captured traffic on the link (xe-
0/0/0) of SwitchA connecting to SwitchB.
Which two situations would cause the problem? (Choose two.)
A. MSTI 1 and MSTI 2 are part of the same MSTP region.
B. The bridge priority value of the MSTI 2 is the same on SwitchA and SwitchB.
C. VLAN 30 and VLAN 40 are not configured on SwitchA.
D. VLAN 30 and VLAN 40 are not members of trunk link xe-0/0/0 on SwitchA.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 34
You are asked to implement a captive portal on your EX Series switches.
What are three required steps? (Choose three.)
A. You must create the captive portal login page.
B. You must ensure the Web service is turned on.
C. You must specify the interfaces participating in the captive portal.
D. You must create and apply an authentication profile.
E. You must create an authentication whitelist.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 35
— Exhibit —
Controller Maximum Power Guard Management Status Lldp index power consumption band Priority 0 792.00W 603.50W 0W Class AT_MODE Disabled
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. The switch supports PoE+.
B. The switch is protected against spikes in power demand.
C. The switch supports a maximum power draw per PoE port of 15.4 watts.
D. The switch can manually assign priorities per interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
You are configuring port ge-0/0/0 on an EX Series switch connected to an IP phone that does not support LLDP-MED.
Which three configuration statements do you need to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching native-vlan-id voice-vlan
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members voice-vlan
C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data-vlan
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching native-vlan-id data-vlan
E. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching port-mode trunk
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 37
You are configuring CoS classifiers and want to use both BA and MF classification. After applying the configuration, you realize that the classifiers have a conflict.
Which statement is true?
A. BA classification overrides MF classification.
B. MF classification overrides BA classification.C. Neither classification method is applied.
D. Both classifications are applied randomly.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
On your EX Series switch you must configure a delay buffer for the best effort queue scheduler named BE- sch which restricts the buffer usage to only 25 percent
of the available buffer size.
Which configuration statement will accomplish this task?
A. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch]
[email protected]# set buffer-size buffer-size temporal 25
B. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch]
[email protected]# set buffer-size buffer-size temporal 25 exact
C. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch]
[email protected]# set buffer-size percent 25
D. [edit class-of-service schedulers BE-sch]
[email protected]# set buffer-size exact percent 25
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
A user complains about connectivity problems from their IP address (10.1.1.87) to a server (10.65.1.100).
Which Junos command can help verify connectivity in the network? (Choose Two)
A. mroute
B. traceoptions
C. ping
D. clear bgp neighbor
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 40
Port authentication falls back to Captive Portal.
In which two scenarios would the port authentication move back to 802.1X? (Choose two.)
A. if any MAC RADIUS request packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in authenticated/authenticating state
B. if Captive Portal is deactivated on the interface
C. if the user gets logged out
D. if the EAP packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in authenticated/ authenticating state
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 41
A network routes IPv4 traffic only. You want to add IPv6 to the network, but you must use a single IGP for both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic.
Which protocol meets this requirement?
A. OSPFv2
B. BGPv4
C. ES-ISv1
D. OSPFv3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
A Layer 2 forwarding loop occurred on your network during a scheduled maintenance period.
You must prevent this behavior in the future.
Which protocol should you enable on the EX Series switch to address this condition in the future?
A. DVMRP
B. L2TPv3
C. STP
D. RSVP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
You have implemented 802.1X authentication in your Layer 2 network and you have only a single RADIUS server. You are asked to ensure that if the RADIUS
server becomes unreachable or fails, users connected to the ge-0/0/0 port are still able to reach the Internet using a predefined guest VLAN.
Which command allows this access?
A. [edit]
[email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 radius-fail vlan guest
B. [edit]
[email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 server-fail vlan-name guest
C. [edit]
[email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 auth-fail assign-vlan guest
D. [edit]
[email protected]# set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/0.0 radius-fail assign guest
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which option is a valid IPv6 multicast address?
A. fe80::205:8640:471:3200/64
B. ::172.16.0.5/126
C. ff03:365:ba::23
D. ff01:cgfc:345::226:8ff:fee4:bf6f
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Free Oracle 1Z0-567 Exam dumps question(1-11)

QUESTION NO: 1

Identify the true statement regarding currency preferences for viewing currency.
A. They are globally set and controlled by administrators.
B. They are managed by an interface to a financial system (FMS).
C. They are set by individuals in user preferences.
D. They are permanently set during installation.

Answer: C

Explanation:
* User Preferences | Currency sets the currency to display in P6, as well as the type
of currency symbol and whether to show decimal places.
* My Preferences offers options for you to customize the data display format across all sections of
P6. The options you customize are exclusively yours. You can alter global preferences, including
formats for time units, dates, and currencies.

QUESTION NO: 2

Identify this window.

A. Create Dashboard
B. Create Portfolio
C. Create Portfolio view
D. Group and Sort

Answer: C

Explanation:
One idea behind Portfolio Analysis in P6 is that it gives you the ability to quickly
make ad-hoc reports. You can quickly change the view and alter what data is
displayed and in what form. There are two main kinds of views — scorecards and
graphs.
Note: In the context of creating a scorecard:
Choosing data to display
There are three areas that you can customize on a scorecard: Columns, Group,
and Waterline.
Screenshot (compare to screenshot in the question):

Columns
The columns available are a mixture of Project-level data as well as WBS-level data. You can choose any of these columns on the left-hand side and press the right-arrow
to move them to the Selected Columns. On the right-hand side you may re-order the
columns by selecting them and using the up and down arrows.
You can choose the default sorting of the data as well. Once on the scorecard screen,
you can change the order by simply clicking on the column headers.
The option Show Project Requests determines whether potential projects should
also be included in the scorecard.

QUESTION NO: 3

You are a project manager with a required monthly update cycle. You have marked actual start
and actual finish dates for your Physical % complete activities, with % complete calculated from
activity steps. You schedule and summarize your project plans. However, your activities are not
showing 100% complete. What is the problem?
A. Your security does not allow you to update Activity Status.
B. You did not save the changes made to the activities.
C. You have not completed each of the activity steps.
D. You must refresh the view in the web to view the changes.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

You are creating a new portfolio scenario. You are attempting to save it for all users, but the
selection is unavailable (grayed out).
What is the cause?
A. You have insufficient global security privileges.
B. You have Insufficient project security privileges.
C. You have insufficient portfolio security privileges.
D. You have insufficient user security privileges.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Global profiles:
Define a user’s access to application-wide information and settings, such as the enterprise project
structure (EPS), resources, roles, and cost accounts. Each user must be assigned a global profile.
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Get Success in Passing Your Certification Exam at first attemptIncorrect answers:
B: Project profiles
Define a user’s access to project-specific information. It is not required that each user be assigned
a project profile; however, users cannot access projects unless they are assigned: a project
profile, the global profile Admin Superuser, as a resource assignment when they are a project
owner, or as a resource assignment when they have Team Member module access.
Reference; P6 EPPM Administrator’s Guide, Security Concepts in P6 EPPM

QUESTION NO: 5

Your customer wants to take advantage of capacity planning in portfolios. The customer would like
to use generic resources, because they have greater flexibility to respond to changing costs by
resource by location. In fact, they would prefer not to set up any roles at all in the database,
because they perceive generic resources and roles to be duplicate effort. What would an
appropriate response be to this customer?
A. Use generic resources in Capacity Planning view, because they have greater ability to respond
to changing costs.
B. User generic resources for project financials, and mirrored roles for capacity planning.
C. Use roles for planning and project financials to eliminate duplicate data maintenance.
D. Integrate with HR systems to obtain automated generic resource pricing updates.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6

You are meeting with a customer and demonstrating the Resource Assignments GANTT view.
What data will you be highlighting?
A. Tabular-formatted data showing codes and attributes
B. Timescaled resource assignment data
C. Timescaled project and resource data
D. Timescaled cost and resource data

Answer: B

Explanation:
Note: See 5a below.
Customizing the Resources Assignments Gantt Chart Bars
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Get Success in Passing Your Certification Exam at first attemptCustomize the settings for the Gantt chart view on the Resources Assignments page. You can set
features for up to three bars per assignment.
To customize the resource assignments Gantt chart bars:
Note: Set at least one bar to Current Bar.
* Current Bar – Shows a bar that spans the early start date/actual start date to the early finish
date/actual finish date for each assignment. For a Current bar, you can select an additional option
for showing the progress of activities.
* Late Bar – Shows the late start date to the late finish date of an assignment. A Late bar does not
display if the project has not been scheduled.
* Plan Bar – Shows the planned start date to the planned finish date of an assignment. This bar is
used for simulating the outcome of the project schedule as part of project planning.
Etc.
Reference: Oracle Primavera P6, Customizing the Resources Assignments Gantt Chart Bars

QUESTION NO: 7

Identify three types of activity codes.
A. Global
B. Activity
C. Project
D. EPS
E. WBS
F. Resource

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Note: Global Activity Codes (but not Project-level or ESP-level) that may be created
at any time and applied to any project.

QUESTION NO: 8

Identify the key benefit of the Plan Resources view.
A. You can create resource staffing scenarios using waterline analysis.
B. You can identify staffing shortfalls within detailed project plans.
C. You can view and analyze resource allocation without assignments to activities.
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Get Success in Passing Your Certification Exam at first attemptD. You can view and assign resources mapped to appropriate roles with the highest skills.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Note:
* You can delete a financial period that has high-level assignment planning values (as entered on
the Plan Resources page of P6) as long as the financial period does not contain past period
actuals. When you delete a financial period that has high-level assignment planning values, the
values are deleted as well.
* View options for including assignments made in the Plan Resources view in other allocation
related view in Primavera

QUESTION NO: 9

Select the true statement regarding project security profiles.
A. Project security profiles define the weight of project codes.
B. To receive a project security profile, a user must be defined as a resource.
C. Project security profiles override global security profiles.
D. To access projects, a user must be assigned a project security profile.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Project profiles
Define a user’s access to project-specific
information. The Project Management module does not require that
each user be assigned a project profile; however, users cannot
access projects unless they are assigned a project profile or the
global profile, Admin Superuser.
Note:
To ensure security at various levels of data, the Project Management
module provides two sets of security profiles:
* Global profiles
Define a user’s access to application-wide
information and settings, such as the enterprise project structure
(EPS), resources, roles, and cost accounts. Each user must be
assigned a global profile. (B)
*
Note 1: The following diagram illustrates the relationships between a user, the
OBS, EPS, and WBS.

Note 2: Users in Primavera P6 require two different profiles to control what they can do in the
system; a Global Security Profile and a Project Security Profile

QUESTION NO: 10

Identify the true statement regarding Schedule Checker.
A. Before running Schedule Checker, you should schedule the project.
B. Schedule Checker evaluates the WBS structure to demonstrate standards compliance.
C. Schedule Checker is run from the Portfolios section.
D. Run Schedule Checker before scheduling the project to fix issues.

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
Note: The new schedule checker is a tool that assists planners, project managers and the PMO to
ensure project plans are built within the guidelines of industry and organizational best practices.
The schedule checker performs a 14-point analysis to ensure that activities and dependencies of
the project schedule are following desired standards. The schedule checker adheres to the DCMA
14-point assessment check and produces a report that lists all opportunities for corrective action or
improvement when aspects of the project schedule fall outside the quality guidelines. The report
includes a summary and detailed sections displaying activities falling outside your configured
thresholds.
Note 2: The Schedule Checker can be run against one or multiple projects. You can save the
thresholds to run again for the project that is open.
The first thing to do is set up the 14 Configurable User Thresholds. See figure below.

Example of output.
Shown below is the top half of the Schedule Check Summary Report.

http://www.cbainc.com/blog/public_html/blog/wp-options/upload/2012/05/Check-Schedule-
summary-report.png
Reference below the lower half of the Schedule Check report.

http://www.cbainc.com/blog/public_html/blog/wp-options/upload/2012/05/Check-Schedule-
summary-report2.png

QUESTION NO: 11

The two global profiles that are hard-coded in the system and cannot be deleted or changed
_______and_______ .

A. Project Manager
B. System Administrator
C. IT Administrator
D. Admin Super User
E. Resource Manager
F.No Global Privileges

Answer: D,F

Explanation:
In addition to any global profiles that you define, P6 provides two predefined global
profiles: Admin Superuser and No Global Privileges.
Reference: Application Level Security

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QUESTION 1
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
700-070 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What causes echo or reverberation in the room during a call?
A. too many acoustic panels
B. too many hard surfaces
C. too many people
D. too many devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which infrastructure component is needed for OBTP?
A. Prime Collaboration
B. Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco TelePresence System
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the IX5000?
A. immersive collaboration
B. mobile-device use
C. desktop use
D. home use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two options are available through the participant icon? (Choose two.)
A. List all missed calls.
B. Drop a caller from the call.
C. List all participants who were dropped from the call.
D. List all participants on the call.
E. Add a caller to the call.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
How can you change presentation display options during a call?
A. Open the share tray and drag the presentation to the desired location.
B. Open the share tray and assign display numbers to each presentation.
C. Open the system settings and reconfigure the display options.
D. Open the participant list and drag the presentation to the desired location.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two standards does the IX5000 codec support? (Choose two.)
A. H.324
B. H.320
C. H.265
D. G.729AB
E. G.728
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two actions are part of the Display Connection step during endpoint configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the screen resolution.
B. Register the endpoint to Unified Communications Manager.
C. Perform an internal display cabling check.
D. Determine the system layout display on Touch 10.
E. Register the endpoint to the Cisco VCS.
700-070 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
How many hours does the initial camera setup typically require?
A. 3 to 4
B. 2 to 3
C. 1 to 2
D. less than 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which device type is correct for the IX5200?
A. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (9 seats)
B. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (18 seats)
C. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (9 seats)
D. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (18 seats)
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which installation key for the IX5000 is required for IX5000 infrastructure configuration?
A. Cisco TMS
B. Cisco VCS
C. Unified Communication Manager
D. TelePresence MCU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options to be noted during infrastructure configuration? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. number of screens
D. serial number
E. number of rows
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
Which device is a component of the IX5000?
A. ceiling-mounted microphone array
B. triple 4K UHD camera cluster
C. acoustic ceiling tile
D. Touch 8 user interface
700-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the maximum image resolution of the 4K UHD camera display in the IX5000?
A. 1080p60
B. 1280p60
C. 1080p30
D. 720p30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Where can you find presentation statistics in a point-to-point IX5000 call?
A. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General
B. Monitoring > Call Statistics > Audio Only
C. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Video
D. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Audio
700-070 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which action should you take during recabling?
A. Disconnect power.
B. Hot-swap cables.
C. Connect power.
D. Use cables interchangeably.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which step is required during pre-installation of the IX5000?
A. Hang celling lights.
B. Install wall panels.
C. Verify that the room floor is level.
D. Verify that appropriate licenses, upgrades, and tools are available.
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Where can you find the results for noise-level and reverberation tests?
A. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Reports
B. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Log Files
C. Admin GUI > Logs > Reports
D. Admin GUI > Reports > Log Files
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What should you do first when Self View display issues occur?
A. Close and re-open Self View.
B. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
C. Close and re-open the share tray.
D. Power-cycle the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
What is the proper order of steps for installing an IX5000?
A. Perform cable routing, install display frames, install tabletops, and install the codec.
B. Install tabletops, perform cable routing, install display frames, and install the codec.
C. Install display frames, install the codec, perform cable routing, and install tabletops.
D. Install display frames, install tabletops, perform cable routing, and install the codec.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
700-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
How many presentations can be shared in a direct IX5000-to-IX5000 call?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What are the room power requirements?
A. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
B. 0.95 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
C. 0.95kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
D. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
If a single microphone fails, you should first test cabling between which two points?
A. the TDM and the codec
B. the microphone bar and the Touch 10
C. the microphone bar and the codec
D. the microphone bar and the TDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Where can you find packet-transmission statistics?
A. Monitoring > Maintenance
B. Monitoring > Network Data
C. Monitoring > Statistics
D. Monitoring > Call Info
700-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
What is the minimum required number of people to install an IX5000 in one day?
A. three
B. four
C. two
D. one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What should you do first when the local Touch 10 falsely indicates that content is being shared?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
700-070 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
What should you do first when a display shows a black screen instead of presentation content after hot
swapping cables?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Where is the option to choose OBTP?
A. Booking > Basic Settings> New Conference
B. New Conference > Booking > Basic Settings > Type
C. Booking > New Conference > Basic Settings > Type
D. Basic Settings > New Conference > Booking
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

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Q&As: 77
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QUESTION 27
In the future upgraded environment, Healthy Helping Hands wants to provide the IT department with the ability to interact with user sessions for training and troubleshooting without compromising security demands. How can an architect meet the needs of the Healthy Helping Hands IT department?
A. Enable shadowing in the current environment.
B. Use Group Policy to enable Microsoft Remote Support.
C. Purchase licenses for a third party remote viewing software.
D. Enable shadowing once the environment is migrated to XenApp 5.
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
Scenario: Several users in the HR user group will be traveling to trade conferences this year to meet industry training requirements and stay current on developing trends in the field. While working remotely, these users will need to upload presentations and training material distributed during the conferences onto sponsored USB keys. Based on the analysis document, how can an architect ensure that the current environment allows the HR user group to meet this need?
A. Edit the HR Users policy to allow client mappings.
B. Provide a secure FTP site for presentation and training material uploads.
C. Maintain the current environment since it currently allows users to map their drives.
D. Move the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server to the DMZ in the environment to allow for remote connections.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Scenario: In order to ensure that additional servers and client desktops can be made available as quickly as possible, Healthy Helping Hands is eager to take advantage of the functionality of Provisioning Services to provide virtual hard drives for virtual servers and workstations. However, one of the main requirements from Healthy Helping Hands is that virtualized applications should seamlessly failover to the designated backup datacenter when necessary. What should an architect suggest for the storage of desktop and/or server vDisks in order to comply with the company’s requirement?
A. A distributed SAN to store all virtual hard drives
B. A centralized SAN to store all virtual hard drives
C. The local hard drive of the user’s file or profile server to store the virtual hard drives
D. The local hard drive of the first Provisioning Services server installed to store the virtual hard drives
1Y0-A16 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
Due to difficulties with the current Secure Gateway environment, an architect has been asked to ensure that remote users will only have to enter their credentials once in order to gain secure access to all of their resources. Which architectural components are required to best achieve this goal?
A. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL enabled and Password Manager
B. Access Gateway, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
C. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
D. Access Gateway, Web Interface, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Which component must an architect use to provide TLS-based encryption between the Web Interface server in the DMZ and any internal XenApp or XenDesktop servers in the final design?
A. IIS 6
B. Secure Gateway
C. Access Gateway
D. Citrix SSL Relay
1Y0-A16 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
As part of the new design, the Healthy Helping Hands organization wants to implement an additional layer of token-based authentication. Which two vendors could the architect suggest in order to provide “out-of-the-box” support for token-based authentication for Access Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. RSA
B. Vasco
C. SafeSign
D. SafeWord
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
The architect discovered two considerations during the assessment that may be addressed by enabling SmartAuditor.
What are these two considerations? (Choose two.)
A. Users report that print jobs intermittently fail.
B. Users are not able to access their applications remotely.
C. Employees are required to log off when not using PositivelyPeople.
D. Users are frustrated with the IT Staff because of application access issues.
1Y0-A16 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
Scenario: After assessing the Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure, an architect recommends that all desktops be virtualized using a XenServer, XenDesktop and Provisioning Services environment. The architect also recommends purchasing XenDesktop platinum licenses. Which parameter should the architect recommend for monitoring in order to ensure integration with the organization’s existing storage solution?
A. CPU usage on the XenDesktop servers
B. Disk queue length on the XenDesktop server
C. CPU usage on the Provisioning Services servers
D. Disk queue length on the Provisioning Services servers
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
Scenario: A review of the Healthy Helping Hands architecture has identified that about 20% of users work from home or while travelling. Following complaints about the reliability of the remote access, the architect recommended deploying the Access Gateway appliance with applications and desktops provided by XenApp or XenDesktop accordingly. As part of the disaster recovery plan, Healthy Helping Hands has stated that all users must be able to connect to the Citrix
infrastructure from home. Which component of the proposed architecture may create a bottleneck during this scenario?
A. XenApp server(s)
B. XenDesktop server(s)
C. Web Interface server(s)
D. Access Gateway appliance(s)
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Scenario:
Users in the Engineering and Marketing deparments frequently suffer performance issues when accessing the CAD application and the Marketing design application, which are both resource- intensive applications. Healthy Helping Hands would like to provide the users in both the Engineering and Marketing departments with a better experience when they access these applications. Which XenApp feature can an architect enable to improve the user experience?
A. Create a Service Level Policy to enable preferential load balancing
B. Apply an Advanced load evaluator to the CAD applications and the Marketing design applications
C. Apply the Default load evaluator to the servers hosting the resource-intensive applications.
D. Apply a Custom load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
How can the architect ensure that users in the Engineering and Marketing departments have preferential access to CPU resources?
A. Apply the service level policy to the Engineering and Marketing groups based on the client name filter.
B. Apply the service level policy to the servers on which the applications reside based on the server filter.
C. Apply the service level policy to the Engineers and Marketing user groups based on the users filter.
D. Apply the service policy to the Engineering and Marketing user groups based on the Access Control filter.
1Y0-A16 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
How can the architect apply an advanced load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications?
A. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to all applications in the farm.
B. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to the servers hosting the applications.
C. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
D. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to all servers in the farm.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
How can the architect apply the Default load evaluator to the servers hosting the CAD and Marketing design applications?
A. Assign the Default load evaluator to all applications in the farm.
B. Assign the Default load evaluator to the servers hosting the applications.
C. Assign the Default load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
D. Assign the Default load evaluator to the all servers in the farm.
1Y0-A16 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
How can the architect apply the Custom load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications?
A. Assign the Custom load evaluator to all applications in the farm.
B. Assign the Custom load evaluator to the servers hosting the applications.
C. Assign the Custom load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
D. Assign the Custom load evaluator to all servers in the farm.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Why should the architect apply the service level policy to the Engineering and Marketing groups based on the client name filter?
A. The policy allots more CPU shares to the specific user groups using these applications.
B. The policy increases the bandwidth for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups.
C. The policy allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. The policy reduces the length of time it takes for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups to access these applications.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
Why should the architect apply the service level policy to the servers on which the application resides based on the server filter?
A. The policy allots more CPU shares to those using these applications.
B. The policy increases the bandwidth for the users accessing the applications on these servers.
C. The policy allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. The policy reduces the length of time it takes for users to access these applications.
1Y0-A16 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Why should the architect create a service level policy that is applied to the Engineers and Marketing user groups based on the users filter?
A. This allots more CPU shares to those using these applications.
B. This increases the bandwidth for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups.
C. This allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. This reduces the length of time it takes for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups to access these applications.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
Why should the architect apply the service level policy to the Engineering and Marketing user groups based on the Access Control filter?
A. This allots more CPU shares to those using these applications.
B. This increases the bandwidth for the users accessing these applications.
C. This allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. This reduces the length of time it takes for users to access these applications.
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
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A. Create a new collection from the baseline deployment.
B. Modify the configuration item properties.
C. Create a collection that has a limiting collection.
D. Modify the collection properties.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issues reported by the RDS users. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Set-RDCertificate cmdlet.
B. Modify the collection properties.
C. Modify the RDWeb web application settings.
D. Modify the RemoteApp program properties.
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to meet the application requirements of App1. What should you do?
A. Modify the Parameters properties of the App1 RemoteApp program.
B. Run the Set-WebBinding cmdlet.
C. Run the Set-RDRemoteApp cmdlet.
D. Modify the Application Settings of the RDWeb web application.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You deploy Microsoft updates by using Configuration Manager. An administrator manually approves all of the updates as soon as they are available in the Configuration Manager console. All computers are in the same collection. You discover that several updates cause issues on some of the computers. You need to automate the deployment of all the Microsoft updates. The solution must ensure that all new updates are deployed to a group of pilot computers first and then deployed to all other computer two days later. What should you create?
A. one new boundary group and one deployment package
B. two new boundary groups and two deployment packages
C. one new collection and two automatic deployment rules
D. one new boundary group and two deployment packages
E. one new collection and one automatic deployment rule
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed. Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer. You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues. You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation. Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.
C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that was migrated from Configuration Manager 2007 R2. You have a Windows Installer (MSI) package for an application named App1. App1 is deployed to several client computers by using Configuration Manager 2007 R2. You plan to create a configuration item to modify a registry entry that was created during the installation of App1. You need to identify which detection method must be used for the configuration item. What is the best detection method to identify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Use Windows Installer detection.
B. Always assume application is installed.
C. Use a custom script to detect this application.
D. Detect a specific application and deployment type.
70-696 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Configuration Manager is integrated with Windows Intune. All client computers and devices are managed by using Configuration Manager. You have a Wi-Fi network named Wi-Fi1. You create a Wi-Fi profile named Wi-Fi1 and provision the profile for Windows RT 8.1 devices. You create a collection named Collection1 that contains all of the devices that run Windows RT 8.1. You need to ensure that the users who use the Windows RT 8.1 devices can connect to Wi-Fi1 without having to configure the wireless settings manually. The Wi-Fi profile must NOT be used on any other devices. What should you do?
A. Deploy Wi-Fi1 to the All Users collection.
B. Deploy Wi-Fi1 to Collection1.
C. Deploy Wi-Fi1 to the All Mobile Devices collection.
D. Modify the profile properties of Wi-Fi1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You manage a multi-site deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You need to ensure that clients use only their preferred distribution points for downloading content.
Which objects and settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects and settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager primary site named ST1. To all client computers, you deploy the Endpoint Protection client from Configuration Manager and an antimalware policy named Policy1.
You need to ensure that the Endpoint Protection status is updated every 10 minutes in the Monitoring workspace.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-CMClientStatusUpdateSchedule cmdlet.
B. Modify the Endpoint Protection status schedule summarization.
C. Modify the Policy1 Advanced settings.
D. Run the Set-CMClientStatusSettings cmdlet.
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You plan to manage Android devices by using Configuration Manager. You are evaluating whether to use the Exchange Server connector or Windows Intune to manage the Android devices.
You need to identify which management features are available for the Android devices. What should you identify? To answer, select the available management features for the Exchange Server connector and for Windows Intune in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 12
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You configure Asset Intelligence. You need to request a catalog update for an inventoried software named App1. Which category and family should you configure for App1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your company has a branch office that contains 50 client computers. You deploy Windows Intune to manage the client computers. You need to create a new policy that will change the frequency at which the computers check for updates. Which type of policy template should you use?
A. Windows Intune Agent Settings
B. Windows Intune Center Settings
C. Mobile Device Security Policy
D. Windows Firewall Settings
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that contains the objects shown in the following table.
70-696 dumps
You are creating a new configuration baseline. You need to identify which objects you can use as evaluation conditions within the new configuration baseline. Which three objects should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Object1
B. Object2
C. Object3
D. Object4
E. Object5
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
Your company purchases an application named App1. App1 is installed by using a Windows Installer (MSI) package. App1 will be uninstalled and updated frequently. You need to deploy App1 by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. What is the best type of object to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. an application
B. an automatic deployment rule
C. a package
D. a configuration item
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The Exchange Server connector is deployed. You need to create a collection that includes only devices that are discovered from Microsoft Exchange Server. Which criteria should you add to the collection query rule? To answer, select the appropriate criteria in the answer area.
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Mar.26,2018

Pass4itsure experts collected 91 questions and answers for candidates’ preparation. Best Cisco 200-150 dumps DCICN exam download with new discount video training. The Introducing Cisco Data Center pass4itsure success 210-255 dumps Networking (200-150 DCICN) exam tests data center physical infrastructure, data center networking concepts, and data center storage networking. This 90-minute exam consists of 55-65 questions and covers integration of Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) and context-aware firewall components, as well as Web (Cloud) and Email Security solutions. Pass4itsure provide you latest and relevant Cisco 200-150 questions & answers that help you to get prepared and pass DCICN 200-150 exam in the first attempt. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) course.

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Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Q&As: 91
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Pass4itsure Cisco 200-150 Dumps Free Demo Download(1-14)

QUESTION 1
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
200-150 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
200-150 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
200-150 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
200-150 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program:
#include
#include
#include
int buffer(char *str)
{ char buffer1[10];
strcpy(buffer1, str);
return 1;
}
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{ buffer (argv[1]);
printf(“Executed\n”);
return 1;
}
His program is vulnerable to a attack.
A. SQL injection
B. Denial-of-Service
C. Buffer overflow
D. Cross site scripting
Answer: C
Explanation:
This program takes a user-supplied string and copies it into ‘buffer1’, which can hold up to 10 bytes of data. If a user sends more than 10 bytes, it would result in a buffer overflow.

QUESTION 9
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ——————————- is the complete network
configuration and information toolkit that uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in
order to be very fast and efficient.
200-150 exam Answer: NetRanger
Explanation:
NetRanger is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that includes the following tools: a Ping tool, Trace Route tool, Host Lookup tool, Internet time synchronizer, Whois tool, Finger Unix hosts tool, Host and port scanning tool, check multiple POP3 mail accounts tool, manage dialup connections tool, Quote of the day tool, and monitor Network Settings tool. These tools are integrated in order to use an application interface with full online help. NetRanger is designed for both new and experienced users. This tool is used to help diagnose network problems and to get information about users, hosts, and networks on the Internet or on a user computer network. NetRanger uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.

QUESTION 10
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.
Answer: biometric
Explanation:
A biometric device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic, physical, or behavioral traits. Biometrics is used as a form of identity access management and access control. It is also used to identify individuals in groups that are under surveillance. Biometric characteristics can be divided into two main classes:
1.Physiological: These devices are related to the shape of the body. These are not limited to the fingerprint, face recognition, DNA, hand and palm geometry, and iris recognition, which has largely replaced the retina and odor/scent.
2.Behavioral: These are related to the behavior of a person. They are not limited to the typing rhythm, gait, and voice.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Wireless sniffer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Performance Monitor
200-150 dumps Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Protocol analyzer (also known as a network analyzer, packet analyzer or sniffer, or for particular types of networks, an Ethernet sniffer or wireless sniffer) is computer software or computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network. As data streams flow across the network, the sniffer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes and analyzes its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications.
Answer option D is incorrect. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the
hardware and software components of a server.
Answer option B is incorrect. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of an electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum.

QUESTION 12
In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The router does not have a configuration file.
B. There is a need to set operating parameters.
C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
D. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The system enters ROM monitor mode if the router does not find a valid operating system image, or if a user interrupts the boot sequence. From ROM monitor mode, a user can boot the device or perform diagnostic tests.
Answer option A is incorrect. If the router does not have a configuration file, it will automatically enter Setup mode when the user switches it on. Setup mode creates an initial configuration.
Answer option B is incorrect. Privileged EXEC is used for setting operating parameters.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following protocols is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a network of autonomous systems?
A. IGMP
B. ICMP
C. EGP
D. OSPF
200-150 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
EGP stands for Exterior Gateway Protocol. It is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a network of autonomous systems. This protocol depends upon periodic polling with proper acknowledgements to confirm that network connections are up and running, and to request for routing updates. Each router requests its neighbor at an interval of 120 to 480 seconds, for sending the routing table updates. The neighbor host then responds by sending its routing table. EGP-2 is the latest version of EGP.
Answer option B is incorrect. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a maintenance protocol that allows routers and host computers to swap basic control information when data is sent from one computer to another. It is generally considered a part of the IP layer. It allows the computers on a network to share error and status information. An ICMP message, which is encapsulated within an IP datagram, is very useful to troubleshoot the network connectivity and can be routed throughout the Internet.
Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. IGMP is vulnerable to network attacks.
Answer option D is incorrect. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol that is used in large networks. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) designates OSPF as one of the Interior Gateway Protocols. A host uses OSPF to obtain a change in the routing table and to immediately multicast updated information to all the other hosts in the network.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?
A. Sequence Number
B. Header Length
C. Acknowledgment Number
D. Source Port Address
Answer: D
Explanation:
Source Port Address is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the byte number that the sender of the segment is expecting to receive from the receiver.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a 4-bit field that defines the 4-byte words in the TCP header. The header length can be between 20 and 60 bytes. Therefore, the value of this field can be between 5 and 15.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the number assigned to the first byte of data contained in the segment.
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Pass4itsure Cisco 642-883 Dumps Free Demo Download(49-65)
QUESTION 49
Which high-availability routing feature requires the neighbor router to support the graceful restart capability?
A. BFD
B. NSR
C. NSF
D. MTR
642-883 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On Cisco IOS XR software, NSF minimizes the amount of time a network is unavailable to its users following a route processor (RP) failover. The main objective of NSF is to continue forwarding IP packets and perform a graceful restart following an RP failover. When a router restarts, all routing peers of that device usually detect that the device went down and then came back up. This transition results in what is called a routing flap, which could spread across multiple routing domains. Routing flaps caused by routing restarts create routing instabilities, which are detrimental to the
overall network performance. NSF helps to suppress routing flaps in NSF-aware devices, thus reducing network instability. NSF allows for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being restored following an RP failover. When the NSF feature is configured, peer networking devices do not experience routing flaps. Data traffic is forwarded through intelligent line cards while the standby RP assumes control from the failed active RP during a failover. The ability of line cards to remain up through a failover and to be kept current with the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) on the active RP is key to NSF operation. When the Cisco IOS XR router running IS-IS routing performs an RP failover, the router must perform two tasks to resynchronize its link-state database with its IS IS neighbors. First, it must relearn the available IS-IS neighbors on the network without causing a reset of the neighbor relationship. Second, it must reacquire the contents of the link-state database for the network. The IS-IS NSF feature offers two options when configuring NSF:
·IETF NSF
·Cisco NSF
If neighbor routers on a network segment are NSF aware, meaning that neighbor routers are running a software version that supports the IETF Internet draft for router restartability, they assist an IETF NSF router that is restarting. With IETF NSF, neighbor routers provide adjacency and link-state information to help rebuild the routing information following a failover. In Cisco IOS XR software, Cisco NSF checkpoints (stores persistently) all the state necessary to recover from a restart without requiring any special cooperation from neighboring routers. The state is recovered from the neighboring routers, but only using the standard features of the IS-IS routing protocol. This capability makes Cisco NSF suitable for use in networks in which other routers have not used the IETF standard implementation of NSF

QUESTION 50
Which high-availability mechanism is a detection protocol that is enabled at the interface and at the routing protocol levels?
A. NSF
B. SSO
C. NSR
D. BFD
E. SDR
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
Which OSPF feature allows a router with redundant route processors to maintain its OSPF state and adjacencies across planned and unplanned RP switchovers and does this by checkpointing state information from OSPF on the active RP to the standby RP? This feature does not require the OSPF neighbor to support graceful restart.
A. NSR
B. NSF
C. BFD
D. MTR
E. SDR
642-883 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Continuous Forwarding
An important aspect of high availability is maintenance of traffic forwarding, even in the case of control-plane switchovers. Cisco IOS XR Software has several built-in features that can provide continuous forwarding, including RSP stateful switchover (SSO), Nonstop Forwarding (NSF), Graceful Restart, and NSR.
NSF: Cisco IOS XR Software supports forwarding without traffic loss during a brief outage of the control plane through signaling and routing protocol implementations for Graceful Restart extensions as standardized by the IETF. In addition to standards compliance, this implementation has been compatibility tested with Cisco IOS Software and third-party operating systems. Graceful Restart: This control-plane mechanism ensures high availability by allowing detection and recovery from failure conditions while preserving NSF services. Graceful Restart is a way to recover from signaling and control-plane failures without affecting the forwarding plane. Cisco IOS XR Software uses this feature and a combination of check pointing, mirroring, RSP redundancy, and other system resiliency features to recover prior to timeout and avoid service downtime as a result of network reconvergence.
NSR: This feature allows for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being refreshed following a processor switchover. NSR maintains protocol sessions and state information across SSO functions for services such as Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) VPN. TCP connections and the routing protocol sessions are migrated from the active RSP to the standby RSP after the RSP failover without letting the peers
know about the failover. The sessions terminate locally on the failed RSP, and the protocols running on the standby RSP reestablish the sessions after the standby RSP goes active, without the peer detecting the change. You can also use NSR with Graceful Restart to protect the routing control plane during switchovers. The Cisco IOS XR Operating System provides system resiliency through a comprehensive set of high-availability features including modularity, process restart, fault handling, continuous forwarding, and upgradability.

QUESTION 52
Refer to the Cisco IOS show command output shown in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the AS path.
B. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the weight.
C. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the local preference.
D. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the MED.
E. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the route origin.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 53
Which two statements regarding OSPFv2 or OSPFv3 authentication are correct? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv2 supports MD5 authentication.
B. OSPFv2 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
C. OSPFv2 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 supports MD5 authentication.
E. OSPFv3 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
F. OSPFv3 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
642-883 pdf Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 54
What are three common problems that can cause a BGP neighbor state to toggle between the idle state and the active state? (Choose three.)
A. BGP network command misconfiguration
B. route policy misconfiguration
C. AS number misconfiguration
D. route map misconfiguration
E. BGP neighbor peering to wrong IP address
F. IGP routing problem: not able to reach the source IP address of the BGP open packet
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 55
BGP peerings can be secured using which protection mechanism?
A. SHA authentication
B. MD5 authentication
C. SSH
D. SSL
E. AAA
F. digital certificates
642-883 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 56
In an AS with 10 routers running IBGP, how many IBGP sessions will be required to establish fully meshed IBGP peerings?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 50
E. 99
F. 100
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 57
You are implementing OSPF as the IGP using a single OSPF area design. The router memory usage for OSPF is too high. Which two methods can lower the OSPF memory usage? (Choose two.)
A. Enable OSPF synchronization
B. Implement multi-area OSPF
C. Enable OSPF sham links to reduce the number of LSAs
D. Implement route summarization on the ABRs
E. Enable route leaking between Level 1 and Level 2 areas
642-883 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 58
Routes that are received from an IBGP peer will be propagated to which other routers by default?
A. to the EBGP peers only
B. to the IBGP peers only
C. to both EBGP and IBGP peers
D. to no other peers
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 59
What are two consequences of having constant link flaps, resulting in the OSPF neighbor adjacencies going up and down repeatedly? (Choose two.)
A. routes getting into the “Stuck In Active” state
B. constant flooding of LSAs
C. OSPF route dampening to occur
D. many SPF recalculations
E. routing loops may temporarily be introduced into the network
642-883 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 60. Which SAN topology offers scalability with the lowest associated cost?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Cascade
D. Core-Edge
Answer: C

QUESTION 61. A SAN architect is asked to implement an infrastructure for a production and a test environment using
Fibre Channel devices. Additionally, the customer would like the Fibre Channel device for production and the device for test to communicate over the IP network to remote hosts, but not to each other. Which protocol should the architect implement?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. SCSI-FCP
642-883 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 62. A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each fabric has two array connections. SCSI Queue Depth for HBAs = 8 and Storage devices = 256 per port. Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four independent LTO II tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the maximum value you should set for SCSI Queue Depth?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

QUESTION 63. A customer has determined a primary and secondary threat radius. The primary threat radius is 100km
and the secondary threat radius is 500km. The company legally needs an exact copy of their data replicated to a remote site. They also want a replica outside of the secondary threat radius. What should they do?
A. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
B. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
C. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and synchronously replicate their data to a second facility 500 km away.
D. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and asynchronously replicate their data to a second facility 500 km away.
642-883 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 64. You are troubleshooting a communication problem between a host and a storage array. Both nodes are seen by the switch. The host can talk to the array port but has not assigned a target ID to it. What is the most likely current scenario?
A. There have been no logins
B. Both nodes have completed Fabric Logins but no Port or Process Logins
C. Both nodes have completed Fabric and Port Logins but no Process Login
D. Both nodes have completed Fabric, Port, and Process Login, there is some other problem.
Answer: C

QUESTION 65. A customer is installing a Fibre Channel storage area network for a small test and development lab. The lab contains two small Windows servers and a single ten disk storage subsystem. The customer desires to deploy a fully redundant SAN for this environment with minimal cost. What is necessary to meet the customer’s requirement for full redundancy of the SAN?
A. one director class fabric switch
B. two departmental fabric switches
C. Ethernet connectivity to each component in the SAN
D. at least one HBA in each server being attached to the SAN
642-883 exam Answer: B
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400-101 dumps
QUESTION 420
Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true?(Choose two)
A. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF,it has a default metric of 110.
B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP,it has a default metric of 1.
C. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF,it has a default metric of 1.
D. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS,it has a default metric of 115.
E. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2,it has a default metric of 20.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 421
Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
QUESTION 422
Refer to the exhibit.
You are configuring Router 1 and Routef2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.
Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Routei’2 to establish the tuimel?
(choose two)

A. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class RltoR2.
B. An IP address must be confiaured on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.
C. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.
D. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 423
Drag each routing protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 424
Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the priority order in which the attributes are preferred
when determining the best path on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 425
Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 426
Refer to the Exhibit.

If R1 uses EIGRP to learn route 192.168.10.0/24 from R2. Which interface on R1 uses split horizon for route 192.168.10.0/24?
A. F a0/1
B. F a0/0
C. Se0/0
D. Se1/0
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 427
Which two Cisco IOS AAA features are available with the local database? (Choose two.)
A. command authorization
B. network access authorization
C. network accounting
D. network access authentication
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 428
Which two options are two characteristics of the HSRPv6 protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.0fff.
B. It uses UDP port number 2029.
C. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.ffff.
D. It uses UDP port number 2920.
E. If a link local IPv6 address is used, it must have a prefix.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 429
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 430
Which two statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose two.)
A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.
B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.
C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.
D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.
E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 431
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 432
Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?
A. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point.
B. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface can be the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point or the interface that is used to reach the source.
C. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the source.
D. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 433:
Which of the following are NOT examples of network cables?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial
C. Fiber optic
D. Infrared
Answer: D
QUESTION 434:
How does twisted pair attempt to reduce crosstalk?
A. Larger gauge wire
B. Smaller gauge wire
C. Fewer twists per linear foot
D. More twists per linear foot
400-101 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 435:
Which of the following is not a potential source of EMI?
A. Computers
B. Electrical appliances
C. Radio frequencies
D. Lighting
Answer:
QUESTION 436:
How does twisted pair attempt to reduce crosstalk?
A. Larger gauge wire
B. Smaller gauge wire
C. Fewer twists per linear foot
D. More twists per linear foot
400-101 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 437:
What is the advantage of twisted pair wire over other cabling options?
A. Cost
B. Bandwidth
C. Attenuation
D. EMI immunity
Answer:
QUESTION 438:
When a twisted pair wire has a higher gauge number, it is:
A. Thicker.
B. Thinner.
C. More insulated.
D. Less insulated
400-101 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 439:
Which gauge wire is typically used as backbone cable?
A. 22 AWG
B. 24 AWG
C. 26 AWG
D. 30 AWG
Answer: A
QUESTION 440:
Which of the following types of twisted pair cabling can support bandwidths of up
to 100 Mbps?
A. Category 2
B. Category 3
C. Category 4
D. Category 5
400-101 dumps Answer:
QUESTION 441:
Which type of twisted pair cable is commonly used in a token ring network?
A. Category 1
B. Category 2
C. Category 3
D. Category 4
Answer:
QUESTION 442:
How many twisted pairs are contained in a 10BaseT cable?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
400-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 443:
Coaxial cable consists of:
A. A core, cladding, and sheath.
B. Copper wires sheathed in PVC.
C. Twisted copper wires sheathed in metal.
D. A copper conductor surrounded by at least three layers of insulation.
Answer: D
QUESTION 444:
Coaxial cable is able to carry data at high speeds without danger of interference.
This is possible because coaxial cable has:
A. An opaque plastic coating.
B. A PVC jacket over the core.
C. A shield surrounding the core.
D. Higher-gauge wire used than that found in twisted pair.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 445:
Cheapernet, or thinnet, is:
A. Equivalent to cable TV coax.
B. Used to provide broadband backbone.
C. Used to provide a bus LAN that does not use drop cables.
D. Used to provide a bus LAN with T connectors.
Answer:
QUESTION 446:
Which is an advantage of fiber optic over other transmission media?
A. Cost
B. Ease of installation
C. Ease of management
D. Immunity to signal interference
400-101 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 447:
Which of the following is NOT part of a fiber optic cable?
A. Highly refractive cladding
B. Opaque plastic sheath
C. Glass or plastic core
D. Copper shielding
Answer: D
QUESTION 448:
The glass core of a fiber optic cable carries data with what type of signal?
A. Electrical
B. Light pulses
C. Radio waves
D. Microwaves
400-101 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 449:
A PC that uses a cordless mouse is an example of which type of transmission media?
A. Infrared
B. Optical fiber
C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency
Answer:
QUESTION 450:
With infrared transmission, the sending and receiving devices must typically reside
in the same room because:
A. Radiation is a concern.
B. The signal can usually carry only up to 5 feet.
C. Obstacles such as walls would block the signal.
D. The beam is so diffuse that too many devices could be affected.
400-101 vce Answer:
QUESTION 451:
Which of the following can interfere with an infrared transmission?
A. Too much light
B. EMI
C. RFI
D. Crosstalk
Answer: A
QUESTION 452:
Which of the following is an advantage to short-range wireless transmission?
A. It can be used where cable cannot be routed.
B. It supports higher bandwidths than cable-based transmission.
C. It is a widely accepted standard.
D. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum is fully interoperable with Frequency Hopping
Spread Spectrum devices.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 453:
A wireless device uses Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS). Which of the
following devices can it communicate with?
A. Any other wireless device
B. Only another device using FHSS
C. Only a device using Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
D. Both a device using FHSS and a device using DSSS)
Answer:
QUESTION 454:
What type of signal is used to send short-range wireless transmissions?
A. Light
B. Low-frequency radio
C. Microwave
D. Electromagnetic
400-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 455:
In a satellite transmission, the satellite functions as a:
A. Repeater.
B. Transmission medium
C. Transponder.
D. Landline interface.
Answer:
QUESTION 456:
One disadvantage of satellite transmission is:
A. High cost.
B. Low data rate.
C. Requires line of sight.
D. EMI sensitivity.
400-101 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 457:
A form of free space transmission that has a range of up to 100 km is:
A. Infrared.
B. Microwave.
C. Satellite.
D. Radio frequency.
Answer: B
QUESTION 458:
Which organization is the predominant force for defining LAN standards?
A. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
C. Bell Communications Research (BellCore)
D. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
400-101 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 459:
Which standards organization is responsible for defining the OSI reference model?
A. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
C. Bell Communications Research (BellCore)
D. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
Answer:
QUESTION 460:
One purpose of LAN standards is to:
A. Limit the number of manufacturers in the LAN market.
B. Simplify the design of network servers.
C. Give LAN buyers lower cost and interoperability.
D. Reduce the need for bridges and routers.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 461:
Which term describes the IEEE standard for 10 Mbps ethernet over twisted pair?
A. Cheapernet
B. 10BaseE
C. 10BaseT
D. 802.3bis
Answer:
QUESTION 462:
Which standard governs the development of Switched Multimegabit Data Service
(SMDS)?
A. 802.4
B. 802.6
C. 802.8
D. 802.11
400-101 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 463:
Which layers of the OSI model are governed by IEEE 802.x standards?
A. All layers
B. Layers 5 through 7
C. Layers 1 and 2
D. Layers 3 and 4
Answer:
QUESTION 464:
Which standard defines the procedures for token passing over fiber optic cable?
A. 802.4
B. 802.6
C. 802.8
D. 802.11
400-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 465:
Which standard defines both ad hoc mode and infrastructure mode for wireless
networks?
A. 802.4
B. 802.6
C. 802.8
D. 802.11b
Answer: D
QUESTION 466:
Which standard is responsible for defining the operation of 100VB-AnyLAN?
A. 802.10
B. 802.12
C. 802.14
D. 802.16
400-101 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 467:
Which of the following best describes the key to SNA LU6.2 and PU2.1?
A. All communications are processed by a host mainframe.
B. Personal computers on a LAN can emulate terminals.
C. All computers on the network communicate as peers.
D. They support IEEE 802.3 (ethernet) connections.
Answer:
QUESTION 468:
In SNA, LUs define how services can interact. The significance of LU6.2 is that it:
A. Allows processors on the network to communicate as peers.
B. Formalizes the master-slave relationship between the mainframe and other network processors.
C. Increases the amount of network control exercised by the mainframe.
D. Allows network devices to communicate through the host mainframe.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 469:
Which layers of the OSI model are considered logical layers in the SNA protocol
stack?
A. Layers 1, 2 and 3
B. Layers 4, 5 and 6
C. Layers 5, 6 and 7
D. Layer 7 only
Answer: B
QUESTION 470:
The OSI reference model Layer 3 (network layer) provides, in part, which of the following?
A. Electrical characteristics of transmitted signals
B. Link access management protocols
C. Network routing
D. Interconnectivity between LANs
400-101 dumps Answer:
QUESTION 471:
The OSI reference model Layer 2 (data link layer) defines, in part, which of the
following?
A. Electrical characteristics of transmitted signals
B. Link access management protocols
C. Network addressing schemes
D. Interconnectivity between LANs
Answer:
QUESTION 472:
In TCP/IP, the process layer includes protocols that:
A. Support file transfers.
B. Ensure reliability of data transfer.
C. Handles data exchange between hosts.
D. Allow transfer of data across gateways.
400-101 exam Answer:

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QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The
numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
A new Cisco DX650 is not registering in the Cisco Communications Manager running version 9.1.2. The latest device
package and firmware was uploaded on all Cisco Communications Manager servers in the cluster. What is most likely
the cause of this issue?
A. A cluster-wide reboot is needed to enable the functionality.
B. You must restart the TFTP server.
C. The firmware in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
D. The software version in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
210-065 dump Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When placing a Multiway call through a Cisco TelePresence Conductor, which IP address on the Conductor should the
call be routed to?
A. Rendezvous IP address
B. Ad hoc IP address
C. Scheduled conference IP address
D. Management IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
The command xCommand Security FIPSMode Activate is issued to a Cisco TelePresence C-Series codec. Management wants to reverse the effects of this command. Which two methods could be used for this purpose? (Choose two.)
A. From the touch screen, disable FIPS mode in the Administrator Settings menu.
B. From the touch screen, perform a factory reset from the Administrator Settings menu.
C. From the touch screen, disable all security settings from the Administrator Settings menu.
D. Use SSH to connect to the system and enter the xCommand Security FIPSMode Deactivate command.
E. Use Telnet to connect to the system and enter the xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Init command.
F. Use SSH to connect to the system and enter the xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Confirm: Yes command.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 24
Which codec represents video that is supported by Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. H.263
B. H.323
C. H.264
D. H.262
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dump
An H.323 endpoint that is registered to Cisco VCS Control is not able to make B2B calls. Calls to other internal endpoints are working fine. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The Conductor H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
B. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
C. The Production CUCM H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
D. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is in a andquot;Failedandquot; state.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Which system does this web user interface refer to?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Video Communications Server
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
210-065 dump Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which all-in-one dual-screen solution can be used for an average meeting room without the need for external monitors?
A. MX700
B. MX300G2
C. EX90
D. SX80
E. TX9000
F. MX200G2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

Users in a Cisco TelePresence room report audio and video quality issues. You have been asked to troubleshoot the issue. You log in to the endpoint GUI and check telephony settings. Which option would you recommend to resolve the issue?
A. Audio/video quality issues are generally due to low bandwidth. Contact your carrier to increase the bandwidth.
B. andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
C. andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
D. DSCP values are correct. Check the QoS configuration on the router.
E. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct. Configure the correct value in codec GUI.
F. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct. Configure the correct value in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 29
You are the HR Professional for your organization and you’ve identified a risk event. The risk event can be mitigated by purchasing an insurance to protect the organization. The purchase of the insurance policy is what type of risk response?
A. Avoidance
B. Transference
C. Acceptance
D. Sharing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.Transference doesn’t make the risk go away, but it transfers the risk to a third party, usually for a fee. Purchasing insurance is an example of transference. Transference is a strategy to mitigate negative risks or threats. In this strategy, consequences and the ownership of a risk is transferred to a third party. This strategy does not eliminate the risk but transfers responsibility of managing the risk to another party. Insurance is an example of transference.
References:
QUESTION 30
Stress is often a significant issue in workplaces. Author Ravi Tangri asserts that stress costs organizations up to $300 billion per year. Which one of the following stresses is the largest contributor to organizational cost of waste?
A. Workplace accidents
B. Turnover
C. Absenteeism
D. Drug plan costs
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994, what is the minimum number of days an employee must be gone from their position to be offered COBRA-like health coverage?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 120 days
D. 240 days
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer option A is correct.
For leave greater than 30 days and less than 240 days, the employer must offer COBRA-like health coverage at the request of the employee. Answer option B is incorrect. The COBRA-like health coverage begins on day 30, not 60. Answer option C is incorrect. The COBRA-like health coverage begins on day 30, not 120. Answer option D is incorrect. The COBRA-like health coverage begins on day 30, not 240. 240 days is actually the maximum days the employee is eligible for coverage.
References:
QUESTION 32
An organization has over 5,000 employees who are members of a union. The employees, however, are no longer happy with the union’s performance and they would like to decertify the union from their representation. Who will decertify the union in this instance?
A. The union official if fifty percent of the employees sign off on the decertification
B. The National Labor Relations Board
C. Management of the employees
D. The employees
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 33
You are the HR Professional for your organization and you’ve identified a risk event. The risk event can be mitigated by purchasing an insurance to protect the organization. You’ve also identified that the probability of the risk event is only 20 percent. If management doesn’t want to purchase the insurance to mitigate the risk event, what other choice do they have to respond to the event by using an out-of- pocket payment if the event actually occurs?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Sharing
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.Acceptance is a risk response that accepts the event with the understanding that if the event happens, the organization will deal with the ramifications and impact at the time of the event. Out-of-pocket payments are an example of acceptance. Acceptance response is a part of the Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that
pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities.
References:
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