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QUESTION 2 While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work? A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been called to configure the four PE devices in order to enable full communication among the four CE devices connected to them. While starting to configure, he experienced a connectivity issue. Which two tasks should the engineer perform in order to begin the process correctly? (Choose two.) A. Configure PE3 to export route-targets 100:1 and 200:2. B. Configure PE3 to import route-targets 100:1 and 200:2. C. Configure PE4 to import route-targets 101:1 and 202:2. D. Configure PE2 to export route-targets 300:3 and 400:4. E. Configure PE1 to import route-targets 300:3 and 400:4. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the EVPN components from the left onto the correct planes on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5 Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.) A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4. B. They are represented as 32-bit values C. They are represented as 64-bit values. D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router. E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this output is true? A. The router IP 192.168.1.2 sent an implicit null, and the output is from the penultimate LSR. B. The adjacent router is the egress LSR and has mpls ldp explicit-null configured. C. The adjacent LSR router configured mpls label range 0. D. The zero in the second column is the normal behavior of an egress router LSR. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the result of this configuration? A. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as E1 routes. B. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as E2 routes. C. R1 mutually redistributes routes between BGP 65001 and the OSPF process of VRF custabc. D. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as OIA routes. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured, but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem? A. Change the source IP address. B. Add the IP address to the VRF table. C. Remove the VRF from the interface. D. Configure static routes for the VRF. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html
QUESTION 10 An engineer is troubleshooting an EoMPLS circuit on a Cisco IOS XR router interface that removes a VLAN from the distribution layer. Which configuration should the engineer apply in order to accomplish the task? A. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 B. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 2/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 D. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag translate 1-to-1 dot1ad 10 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 An engineer is troubleshooting AToM on an IOS XE router and receives an error when creating the xconnect. Which command does he need to complete to create the xconnect in AToM? A. encapsulation mpls B. encapsulation 12tpv3 C. protocol 12tpv3 D. protocol none Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this command is true? A. It must be configured on each PE router to enable the PE routers to receive multicast traffic for this particular MVRF. B. It is used to set the designated router on a link using PIM-SM. C. It must be configured on the PE and CE router to enable MP-BGP to send labels for CSC. D. It is used to set the router that will server as the root bridge for STP. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/lsmmldp.html
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The Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification is about cloud services and the basics of how Microsoft Azure provides these services. It is commonly referred to by its course code, the AZ-900. To get it, the only thing you should do is to understand it. Let’s explore it in detail below. With Pass4itsure materials (https://www.pass4itsure.com/microsoft-certified-azure-fundamentals.html), you will sure to pass the exams and get the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification.
Checklist
Answer the most interesting questions about Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Overview: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Benefits of Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification
Comparison of Azure with other cloud platforms such as AWS and Google Cloud
How to Prepare for Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Certification
Pass4itsure Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Answer the most interesting questions about Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Is Azure Fundamentals Certification worth it?
Although the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certificate is not necessary for more professional Azure training, it does provide basic knowledge and skills to streamline the learning and completion process.Lay a good foundation for future learning.
How do I pass Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam?
The exam corresponding to the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification is AZ-900 :Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Before preparing for the AZ-900 exam, it is important to have a full understanding of these modules. Practice exams are essential to passing the exam!
Overview: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Azure Fundamentals certification is suitable for candidates who are just starting to use cloud-based solutions and services or who are new to Azure.
Required exams: AZ-900 measures your ability to understand the following concepts: cloud concepts; core Azure services; security, privacy, compliance, and trust; and Azure pricing and support.Is a 60-minute evaluation.
Below is more about the exam you might want to know:
Describe cloud concepts (15-20%)
Describe core Azure services (30-35%)
Describe security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
Describe Azure pricing Service Level Agreements, and Lifecycles (20-25%)
Note! The content of the AZ-900 exam will be updated on September 15, 2020
Benefits of Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certificates are universally accepted, so they can help you improve your career while working in any organization around the world. If you want to work in an exciting new job and learn more about cloud computing, then the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification may be an important first step.
Comparison of Microsoft Azure with other cloud platforms such as AWS and Google Cloud
Azure is the second most popular cloud platform after Amazon Web Services (AWS).
Microsoft Azure has 3 major competitive advantages
1.AWS provides better services for ML and AI, but Azure does better. Azure divides their AI services into many small isolated services, and they have data-based role authentication at the correlation layer. This makes these roles easier to accept by aspiring developers.
2.When you want to sell software to large companies, the general requirement for purchase is to use Microsoft Active Directory for single sign-on, and Azure has the same advantages here.
3.Microsoft acquired GitHub and ported its functions directly to Azure.
Azure is able to compete on cost, niche cloud-offerings, easy integration, and developers’ familiarity with Microsoft software.
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QUESTION 4 You are asked to write an application that interacts directly with the internal APIs belonging to rpd. Which statement is true in this scenario? A. You must write the application using the XML APIs B. You must write the application using the REST APIs C. You must write the application using the JET APIs D. You must write the application using the YANG APIs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 In a Python commit script, which object provides the post-inheritance candidate configuration? A. Commit-Script-Input B. Junos_Configuration C. Candidate_Configuration D. Checkout_Configuration Correct Answer: B Python automation scripts import the Junos_Context dictionary when the script must access information about the script execution environment. The Junos_Configuration object is required when the commit script must read and manipulate the post-inheritance candidate configuration. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/reference/general/junos-script-automation-boilerplate-commit-scripts.html
QUESTION 6 What is correctly formatted JSON string?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which data serialization method does the Junos CLI use to communicate with the Junos management process (mgd)? A. JSON B. gRPC C. XML D. YAML Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit: You need to programmatically extract interface information using PyEZ from your MX Series device. You log in and use the show interfaces terse | display xml rpc command and see the information shown in the exhibit. What is the correct PyEZ syntax to accomplish this task?
A. dev.rpc.get-interface-information() B. dev.rpc.get_interface_information(terse=True) C. dev.rpc.get-interface-information(terse=True) D. dev.rpc.get_interface_information() Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 With which three processes does the JET service process communicate? (Choose three) A. snmpd B. ancpd C. cosd D. mgd E. rpd Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 11 Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:
Your manager asks you to troubleshoot an Ansible problem when logging into a Junos device. You notice the Ansible play in question has a vars_files argument that calls the variables.yml entry file. The contents of that file are displayed in the exhibit. What is happening in this scenario? A. The file is an SSH key B. The variables.yml file is not actually a YAML file C. The file is encrypted with ansible-vault D. The file is encrypted with ansible Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos-ansible1.0/topics/task/configuration/junos-ansibleauthenticating-users.html
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QUESTION 1 The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict PII security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used? A. Avoid B. Mitigate C. Transfer D. Accept Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials? A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication. B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage. C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange. D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control. E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation. Correct Answer: E A SaaS application that has a federation server within the customer\\’s network that interfaces with the customer\\’s own enterprise user-directory service can provide single sign-on authentication. This federation server has a trust relationship with a corresponding federation server located within the SaaS provider\\’s network. Single sign-on will mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
QUESTION 3 Within the past six months, a company has experienced a series of attacks directed at various collaboration tools. Additionally, sensitive information was compromised during a recent security breach of a remote access session from an unsecure site. As a result, the company is requiring all collaboration tools to comply with the following: Secure messaging between internal users using digital signatures Secure sites for video-conferencing sessions Presence information for all office employees Restriction of certain types of messages to be allowed into the network. Which of the following applications must be configured to meet the new requirements? (Select TWO.) A. Remote desktop Latest CAS-003 Dumps | CAS-003 VCE Dumps | CAS-003 Braindumps 2 / 9 https://www.lead4pass.com/cas-003.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CAS-003 PDF and VCE dumps Download B. VoIP C. Remote assistance D. Email E. Instant messaging F. Social media websites Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4 An architect was recently hired by a power utility to increase the security posture of the company\\’s power generation and distribution sites. Upon review, the architect identifies legacy hardware with highly vulnerable and unsupported software driving critical operations. These systems must exchange data with each other, be highly synchronized, and pull from the Internet time sources. Which of the following architectural decisions would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful attack without harming operational capability? (Choose two.) A. Isolate the systems on their own network B. Install a firewall and IDS between systems and the LAN C. Employ own stratum-0 and stratum-1 NTP servers D. Upgrade the software on critical systems E. Configure the systems to use government-hosted NTP servers Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation? A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products. B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete. C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO. D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly. Correct Answer: D
Real CompTIA CLO-002 Exam Questions And Answers1-5
QUESTION 1 A requirement states that an application must be restored within six hours. Which of the following should be included in the SLA to satisfy this requirement? A. MTTR B. RPO C. ROI D. RTO Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A cloud administrator for an ISP identified a vulnerability in the software that controls all the firewall rules for a geographic area. To ensure the software upgrade is properly tested, approved, and applied, which of the following processes should the administrator follow? A. Configuration management B. Incident management C. Resource management D. Change management Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A company is migrating its e-commerce platform to a cloud service provider. The e-commerce site has a significant number of images. Which of the following is the BEST storage type for storing the images? A. Object B. Cold C. File D. Block Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company has been running tests on a newly developed algorithm to increase the responsiveness of the application. Latest CLO-002 Dumps | CLO-002 Practice Test | CLO-002 Exam Questions 2 / 7 https://www.lead4pass.com/clo-002.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CLO-002 PDF and VCE dumps Download The company\\’s monthly bills for the testing have been much higher than expected. Which of the following documents should the company examine FIRST? A. Memory report B. Compute report C. Network report D. Storage report Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A cloud administrator configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server remotely. Which of the following BEST describes the type of policy being used? A. Audit B. Authorization C. Hardening D. Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 1 An investigation showed a worm was introduced from an engineer\\’s laptop. It was determined the company does not provide engineers with company-owned laptops, which would be subject to company policy and technical controls. Which of the following would be the MOST secure control implement? A. Deploy HIDS on all engineer-provided laptops, and put a new router in the management network. B. Implement role-based group policies on the management network for client access. C. Utilize a jump box that is only allowed to connect to clients from the management network. D. Deploy a company-wide approved engineering workstation for management access. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A security analyst is creating baseline system images to remediate vulnerabilities found in different operating systems. Each image needs to be scanned before it is deployed. The security analyst must ensure the configurations match industry standard benchmarks and the process can be repeated frequently. Which of the following vulnerability options would BEST create the process requirements? A. Utilizing an operating system SCAP plugin B. Utilizing an authorized credential scan C. Utilizing a non-credential scan D. Utilizing a known malware plugin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts B. Disable the user accounts C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 A cybersecurity analyst traced the source of an attack to compromised user credentials. Log analysis revealed that the attacker successfully authenticated from an unauthorized foreign country. Management asked the security analyst to research and implement a solution to help mitigate attacks based on compromised passwords. Which of the following should the analyst implement? A. Self-service password reset B. Single sign-on C. Context-based authentication D. Password complexity Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 The human resources division is moving all of its applications to an IaaS cloud. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has asked the security architect to design the environment securely to prevent the IaaS provider from accessing its data-atrest and data-in-transit within the infrastructure. Which of the following security controls should the security architect recommend? A. Implement a non-data breach agreement B. Ensure all backups are remote outside the control of the IaaS provider C. Ensure all of the IaaS provider\\’s workforce passes stringent background checks D. Render data unreadable through the use of appropriate tools and techniques Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 1 An organization allows clients to retrieve information on earthquake events. This is a description of which of the following classifications? A. XaaS B. DaaS C. CaaS D. SaaS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following authentication types is being required when a user must swipe a key card and then enter a password before being allowed access to the server room? A. Multi-factor authentication B. Single sign-on C. Biometric authentication D. Single-factor authentication Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 After deploying multiple copies of database servers, data scrambling is started on them to anonymize user data. A few minutes later, the systems administrator receives multiple complaints regarding the performance of other VMs. CPU and memory have been eliminated as possible bottlenecks. Which of the following should be verified NEXT as a possible bottleneck? A. Storage array B. Database drivers C. Hardware load balancer D. Internet connection speed Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A company has just completed a security audit and received initial results from the auditor. The results show that the ethical hacker was able to gain access to the company servers by exploiting non-hardened VMs and hosts as guests and administrators. Which of the following should be implemented to harden the environment? (Select two.) A. Discretionary access controls B. Disable unnecessary accounts C. Change default passwords D. Install antivirus software E. Role-based access controls Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A security administrator wants to automate the implementation of network-based ACLs for services deployed within the company VPC. The security administrator is mostly concerned with intra-VPN separation to prevent unauthorized communication between cloud deployed services within the VPC. Which of the following should the security administrator implement? A. Include a list of the firewall rules in the orchestration script B. Use the cloud API to deploy and configure anti-malware services C. Configure the appropriate IDS rules using the cloud portal D. Write custom scripts to deploy a network ACL between the VPC and the company\\’s network Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 1 Which command is used to add OpenSSH private keys to a running ssh-agent instance? (Specify the file name only without any path.) A. ssh-add Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is true about groups in a Linux system? (Choose two correct answers.) A. Each user may be a member of several groups. However, only one group is the user\\’s primary group. B. Groups may have a password that allows users to join that group temporarily. C. Each user can only be a member of one group at a time. D. Group memberships are optional such that there may be users that do not belong to any group. E. Groups can be nested meaning that one group can be a member of another group. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file? A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root. B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow. C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow. D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The presence of what file will temporarily prevent all users except root from logging into the system? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.) A. /etc/nologin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which parameter must be passed to ifconfig to activate a previously inactive network interface? (Specify the parameter only without any command, path or additional options) A. up Correct Answer: A
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Microsoft MB-330 Practice Exam question 1-13
QUESTION 1 You are the materials manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for setting up the ABC classification of all items as follows: 1. Class A materials represent 70 percent of the material value. 2. Class B materials represent 20 percent of the material value. 3. Class C materials represent 10 percent of the material value but are the most commonly used. You need to assign an ABC classification value model to all items using those values. What should you do? A. Run the ABC classification report B. Run the ABC classification periodic task to update the value model for all items C. Manually update the Value classification on the Released product record D. Run the ABC classification periodic task to update the revenue model for all items Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You are the product manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for managing product compliance standards and reporting. Chemical product, C0001 can be sold in all parts of the United States except for the state of California. You need to set up these compliance requirements for C0001. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 Inventory in a warehouse is assigned to an inventory status of available. You need to set up an inventory status for damaged items so that they are not sold to customers. Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT A company plans to stock new items and value those items by using FIFO principle. The company has multiple sites set up. There are multiple warehouses for each site. You must be able to view the value and quantity of these items at each warehouse. You need to apply FIFO costing per warehouse. How should you complete the costing setup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 A company is implementing sales order functionality in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company has a business requirement to fulfill sales orders by using direct delivery. You need to enter a direct delivery sales order so that a purchase order is automatically created. What should you do after you enter the sales order and lines? A. Set the ship complete toggle to On and confirm the order on the sales order header. B. Select automatic and confirm the sales order on the line level setup tab in the reservation field. C. Change the customer\\’s address to the vendor\\’s direct delivery address and confirm the sales order. D. Select the direct delivery option under the sales order action pane and complete the form. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company plans to simplify interactions between purchasing department employees and vendors. You need to ensure that employees are redirected to a vendor\\’s online store to select items for inclusion on purchase requisitions. Solution: Create a retail product catalog. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/supply-chain/procurement/set-up-external-catalog-forpunchout
QUESTION 7 An employee at a company needs to lay out the various component builds for bicycles. You need to identify which constraints the employee should use to set up the bicycles. Which two types of constraints achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. table constraints that are used generically among product configuration models B. expression constraints that are used generically among product configuration models C. expression constraints that are unique to each product configuration model D. table constraints that are always unique to each product configuration model Correct Answer: AC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/pim/expression-constraintstable-constraints-product-configuration-models
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is implementing inventory management in Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. The company needs to block inventory and ensure that physical inventory will not be reserved by other outbound transactions. You need to select the appropriate option to block the inventory in the system. Solution: Select the full blocking option in the item sampling page. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/inventory/inventoryblocking
QUESTION 9 A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. A customer returns a product that is defective for a replacement. You need to process the return order. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a return of type Credit Only B. Set the deadline date according to the company policy C. Create a credit note for the replaced product D. Set the delivery address to the customer\\’s address in the return order E. Create a return of type Physical Return F. Set the deadline date to the date the customer returns the defective product G. Set the delivery address to the company warehouse in the return order Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 10 You need to implement location directives in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Which objects should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct permissions. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance. The finance department processes royalty claims using the accounts payable module. You need to pass the claims to the accounts payable group for payment. Which three events will occur? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. A Royalty accrual journal posting reverses the previous interim postings for accrual and expense amounts. B. A credit is posted to the vendor\\’s payable account. C. A vendor invoice for the royalty payment is set to draft. D. A new vendor invoice for the royalty is created and posted. E. A hold is put on the amounts held in the royalty fees account. Correct Answer: ABD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/accounts-payable/royalty-contract
QUESTION 12 A company plans to use warehouse management and dock appointment scheduling in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to configure the system. Which configuration options should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration options to the correct requirements. Each configuration option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer
QUESTION 13 A company manufactures wood furniture. Cabinets can be purchased with different wood finishes including oak and maple. You need to configure a product attribute to characterize the types of cabinet finishes. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
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Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-310
Set up and configure financial management (35-40%)
Manage and apply common processes (20-25%)
Implement and manage accounts payable and receivable (20-25%)
QUESTION 1 A client has one legal entity and the following four dimensions configured: Business Unit, Cost Center, Department, and Division. You need to configure the client\\’s system to run the trial balance inquiry in the General ledger module so that it displays the trial balance in two ways: Include the main account and all four dimensions. Include the main account and only the business unit and cost center dimensions. What should you configure? A. two account structures B. two derived financial dimension hierarchies C. all financial dimensions by using the group dimension functionality D. two financial dimension sets Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A company needs to create budget plan templates for its budgeting process. You need to create the budget plan templates. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 You are configuring budgeting components in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to configure multiple budgets. What are three budgeting options you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Cost management budget, including Production and Resource groups B. Sales budget, including Campaigns and Events C. Workforce budget, including Compensation groups and Positions D. Project budget, including Items and Fees E. Ledger budget, including Revenue and Expense types Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6 You create a financial dimension set named MA + DEPT + PROJ as shown in the following screenshot. The financial dimension set includes the following dimensions: Main Account Department Project
Use the drop-down menu to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 An organization uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Several posted journal entries contain invalid main account and dimension combinations. This leads to incorrect financial reporting. You need to prevent these invalid combinations. What should you do? A. Configure the account structure to specify which financial dimensions are valid for which main accounts. B. Train users to select the Validate button in the current journal configuration so that the correct account and dimension combination is used. C. Configure financial dimension sets to limit which financial dimensions are valid for which main accounts. D. Associate the correct main accounts to that financial dimension on the financial dimension setup form. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/configureaccount-structures
QUESTION 8 A client is implementing Accounts payable. The client wants to establish three-way matching for 100 of their 5,000 stocked items from a specific vendor. The client requires the ability to have items that require only two-way matching and specific items that require three-way matching. You need to configure the system in the most efficient manner to achieve these requirements. What should you do? A. Configure a company matching policy of a three-way match B. Configure a company matching policy of non-required and specify the items that require a three-way match C. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and set the matching policy for specific item and vendor combination level to three-way matching D. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the items that require a three-way match E. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the vendors that require a three-way match Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/accounts-payable/tasks/set-upaccounts-payable-invoice-matching-validation
QUESTION 9 You are asked to configure foreign currency revaluation in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You are viewing the main accounts.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 A client plans to use Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for year-end 1099 reporting in the United States. You are viewing a vendor master data record on the 1099 FastTab.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You are configuring vendor collaboration security roles for external vendors. You manually set up a vendor contact. You need to assign the Vendor (external) role to this vendor. Which tasks can this vendor perform? A. Add a new or existing contact person to the vendor accounts that they are a contact for B. View consignment inventory C. Request a new user account for a contact person by using the Provision user action D. View and modify contact person information, such as the person\\’s title, email address, and telephone number Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/procurement/set-upmaintain-vendor-collaboration
QUESTION 12 A client uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for accounts receivable. You need to configure the method of payment to enforce the accounts receivable clerk to enter the wire number for the received electronic payment. Which item should you set up as mandatory? A. Select bank transaction type B. Select payment reference C. Select Payment ID D. Select Deposit slip Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A client observes that some customers are late paying their invoices. The client wants to use the Credit and Collections functionality to send collection letters to customers. You need to configure the system to support collection letter functionality and processing. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the HyperV server role installed and are part of a host group named Groupl in Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Server1 and Server2 have identical hardware, software, and settings. You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on a host exceeds 65 percent. The current load on the servers is shown following table.
You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VMS. VMS has a CPU utilization of 20 percent. You discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. What should you modify from the Dynamic Optimization configuration? A. The Host Reserve threshold B. The Power Optimization threshold C. The Aggressiveness level D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 HyperV hosts in a failover cluster. The HyperV hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs). You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements: The virtual machines must support live migration. The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers. Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) B. An NFS share C. Storage pools D. SMB 3.0 shares Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 Your network contains two data centers named DataCenterl and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a lowlatency highspeed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple HyperV hosts that run Windows Server 20l2. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the HyperV hosts. You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements: Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single HyperV host fails. Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend? A. One failover cluster in DataCenterl and HyperV replicas to DataCenter2 B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenterl C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You have a HyperV host named Hyperl that has Windows Server 20l2 installed. Hyperl hosts 20 virtual machines. HyperV has one physical network adapter. You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyperl to all of the virtual machines. What should you modify? A. The settings of the virtual switch B. The settings of the virtual network adapter C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter D. The settings of the legacy network adapter Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Your network contains a HyperV cluster named Clusterl. You install Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You create a user account for another administrator named Userl. You plan to provide Userl with the ability to manage only the virtual machines that Userl creates. You need to identify what must be created before you delegate the required permissions. What should you identify? A. A service template B. A Delegated Administrator C. A cloud D. A host group Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a second System Center 20l2 infrastructure in a test environment. You create a service template named Templatel in both System Center 20l2 infrastructures. For selfservice users, you create a service offering for Templatel. The users create 20 instances of Templatel. You modify Templatel in the test environment. You export the service template to a file named Templatel.xml. You need to ensure that the changes to Templatel can be applied to the existing instances in the production environment. What should you do when you import the template? A. Overwrite the current service template. B. Change the name of the service template. C. Create a new service template. D. Change the release number of the service template. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
Serverl uses the storage shown in the following table.
You perform the following tasks: On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B. On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clusl. On Clusl, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B. You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Serverl. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files. You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files. Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)? A. \\Server3\Share3 B. \\Server2\Share2B C. \\Clusl\Share5B D. \\Server4\Share4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The network contains a System Center 20l2 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment. The domain contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You install System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2. You configure VMM to use a database in Clusterl. Server5 is the first node in the cluster. You need to back up the VMM encryption key. What should you back up? A. A full system backup of Server1 B. A full system backup of Server3 C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5 D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Serverl Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. The cluster has Dynamic Optimization enabled. You deploy three highly available virtual machines to the cluster by using System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to prevent Dynamic Optimization from placing any of the three virtual machines in the same node. What should you do? A. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Compati ility settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. B. Set the Priority property of the virtual machine cluster role. C. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Servicing Windows settings of the virtual machines. D. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Availability settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Webl and Web2. Webl and Web2 run Windows Server 20l2. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Webl and Web2. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation. What should you recommend? A. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet. B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server. C. Remove both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. D. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create two new alias (CNAME) records named Intranet. Map each CNAME record to a Web server name. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Your company has a main office and a branch office. You plan to implement a failover cluster named Clusterl to host an application named Appl. The data of Appl will replicate to all of the nodes in Clusterl. Clusterl will contain two servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table
The cluster nodes will not use shared storage. The branch office contains two file servers named Server3 and Server4. You need to ensure that Appl fails over automatically to another server if a single node in Clusterl fails. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Add Server3 as a node in Clusterl. B. Add Serverl, Server2, and Server3 to a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. C. Add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Cluster2. Install Appl on Cluster2. D. Add Server3 as a file share witness for Clusterl. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office. You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements: Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office. Minimizes data loss. What should you include in the plan? A. HyperV replicas B. Live migration C. Virtual machine checkpoints D. System state restores Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 20l2 or Windows Server 200S R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 200S R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 200S. The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle Bin. You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy. Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 200S R2. B. Run the EnableADOptionalFeature cmdlet. C. Run the NewADObject cmdlet. D. Run the SetServer cmdletE. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 20l2. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14 Your network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 7 and a custom application named Appl. Appl uses data stored in a shared folder. You have a failover cluster named Clusterl that contains two servers named Serverl and Server2. Serverl and Server2 run Windows Server 20l2 and are connected to an iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN). You plan to move the shared folder to Clusterl. You need to recommend which cluster resource must be created to ensure that the shared folder can be accessed from Clusterl. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. The Generic Application cluster role B. The DFS Namespace Server cluster role C. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for general use type D. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for scaleout application data type Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), you modify the properties of the service template. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Service Level Tracking object. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Monitor Override. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the User certificate template, and then you modify the extensions of the copy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the Basic EFS template, you assign the Allow Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the Basic EFS certificate template, and then you modify the validity period of the copy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Your network contains multiple servers that run Windows Server 2012. You plan to implement three virtual disks. The virtual disks will be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify the minimum number of physical disks required for each virtual disk. How many disks should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate number of disks to the correct virtual disk in the answer area. Each number of disks may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additi nally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 27 Your company has four offices. The offices are located in Montreal, Seattle, New York, and Miami. Users access all of the web-based resources by using web proxy servers. The IP addresses of the web proxies at each office are configured as shown in the following table.
The connections to the web proxies are balanced by using round－robin DNS. The company plans to deploy a new application. The new application has a farm of front－end web servers that connect to a back－end application server. When a session to a web server is established, the web server stores data until the session closes. Once the session closes, the data is sent to the application server. You need to ensure that the incoming sessions to the web server farm are distributed among the web servers. The solution must ensure that if a web server fails, the users are NOT directed to the failed server. How should you configure the port rule? To answer, select the appropriate opti ns in the answer area
QUESTION 28 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster named Clusterl that contains four nodes. Clusterl hosts a web application named App1. The session state information of App1 is stored in a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The network contains four subnets. You discover that all of the users from a subnet named Subnetl always connect to the same NLB node. You need to ensure that all of the users from each of the subnets connect equally across all of the nodes in Clusterl. What should you modify from the port settings? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
QUESTION 29 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. The domain contains a server named Serverl. Server1 is a certification authority (CA). All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to deploy BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) to all client computers. The unique identifier for your organization is set to Contoso. You need to ensure that you can recover the BitLocker encrypted data by using a BitLocker data recovery agent. You must be able to perform the recovery from any administrative computer. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 30 You plan to deploy a certification authority (CA) infrastructure that contains the following servers: An offiine standalone root CA named CA1 An enterprise subordinate CA named CA2 On all of the computers, you import the root CA certificate from CA1 to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities Certificates store. You need to ensure that CA2 can issue certificates for the CA hierarchy. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
QUESTION 31 Your network contains five physical servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 32 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) is deployed to the domain. In VMM, you create a host group named HostGroupl. You add a l6－node Hyper－V failover cluster to HostGroupl. From Windows PowerShell, you run the following commands:
Use the drop－down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
QUESTION 33 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple servers that are configured as Hyper－V hosts. You plan to implement four virtual machines. The virtual machines will be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which network must be added to each virtual machine. Which network types should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate Network Type to the correct virtual machine in the answer area. Each Network Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additi nally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 34 You are planning to set up a proof-of-concept network virtualization environment. The environment will contain three servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 35 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Serverl and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are members of a failover cluster. The network contains a Storage Area Network (SAN) that has a LUN named LUN1. LUN1 is connected to a 12-TB disk on the SAN. You plan to host three new virtual machines on the failover cluster. Each virtual machine will store up to 4 TB of data on a single disk. The virtual machines will be backed up from the hosts by using the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS). You need to ensure that Server1 and Server2 can store the new virtual machines on the SAN. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 36 You have a System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) deployment. You implement Hyper-V Recovery Manager for the deployment. You create two new clouds named Cloudl and Cloud2. Metadata for both clouds is uploaded to Windows Azure. You need to ensure that the virtual machines in Cloud1 are protected by using replicas in Cloud2. Where should you perform each action? To answer, select the appropriate tool for each action in the answer area
QUESTION 37 You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains four Hyper-V hosts. Cluster1 hosts 20 virtual machines. You deploy a new failover cluster named Cluster2. You plan to replicate the virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2. You need to recommend which actions must be performed on Cluster2 for the planned deployment. Which three actions should you recommend? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 38 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3 and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are configured as file servers and are part of a failover cluster named Cluster1. Server3 and Server4 have Microsoft SQL Server 2012 installed and are part of a failover cluster named Cluster2. You add a disk named Disk1 to the nodes in Cluster1. Disk1 will be used to store the data files and log files used by SQL Server 2012. You need to configure the environment so that access to Disk1 remains available when a node on Cluster1 fails over or fails back. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 39 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Serverl has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed and is configured to have five iSCSI virtual disks. You install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature on Server2. From the MPIO snap-in, you add support for iSCSI devices. You need to ensure that Server2 can connect to the five iSCSI disks. The solution must ensure that Server2 uses MPIO to access the disks. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 40 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You prepare the forest to support Workplace Join and you enable the Device Registration Service (DRS) on Server1. You need to ensure that Workplace Join meets the following requirements: Application access must be based on device claims. Users who attempt to join their device to the workplace through Server2 must be prevented from locking out their Acti Directory account due to invalid credenti ls. Which cmdlet should you run to achieve each requirement? To answer, select the cmdlet for each requirement in the answer area.
QUESTION 41 You use the entire System Center suite. You integrate Service Manager with Operations Manager, Virtual Machine Manager, Orchestrator, and Active Directory. You perform all remediation by using Orchestrator runbooks. An application experiences performance problems on a periodic basis. You have the following requirements: A new incident must be opened when System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) detects a performance problem. The incident must be closed when the performance problem is resolved. The incident must be associated with the HR performance problem in Service Manager. You need to configure the environment.
QUESTION 42 You are planning to set up a proof-of-concept network virtualization environment. The environment will contain three servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
VMM will be used to manage the virtualization environment. Server2 runs three virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to use network virtualization. You need to enable network connectivity between the virtual machines and Server3. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 43 You need to ensure that all new production Hyper－V virtual machines can be deployed correctly. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
QUESTION 44 You need to configure the environment to support App1. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 45 You need to create a script to deploy DFS replication. Which Windows PowerShell commands should you add to the script? To answer, select the appropriate Windows PowerShell commands in each list in the answer area.
QUESTION 46 You plan to delegate the management of virtual machines to five groups by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The network contains 20 Hyper-V hosts in a host group named HostGroup1. You identify the requirements for each group as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which user role must be assigned to each group. Which user roles should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate user role to the correct group in the answer area. Each user role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 47 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.You publish the certificate revocation list (CRL) to a farm of Web servers. You are creating a disaster recovery plan for the AD CS infrastructure. You need to recommend which actions must be performed to restore certificate revocation checking if a certification authority (CA) is offiine for an extended period of time. Which three actions should you recommend? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 48 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed. You plan to create two virtual machines that will run an application named App1. Appl will store data on a virtual hard drive named Appldata.vhdx. Appldata.vhdx will be shared by both virtual machines. The network contains the following shared folders: An SMB file share named Share1 that is hosted on a Scale-Out File Server. An SMB file share named Share2 that is hosted on a standalone file server. An NFS share named Share3 that is hosted on a standalone file server. You need to ensure that both virtual machines can use Appldata.vhdx simultaneously. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area.
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The best Microsoft 70-417 exam practice questions and answers MCSA Windows Server 2012 test in their very first attempts. Our success rates in the past two years have been absolutely impressive, thanks to 70-417 exam our happy customers who are now able to propel their careers in the fast lane.
QUESTION 1
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the syntax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /feature name:Server- Gui- Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
QUESTION 2 70-417 exam
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the following storage spaces:
*Data
*Users
*Backups
*Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space.
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. 70-417 exam
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the set parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart, click in the Start Search box, type services.MSC, and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-click services, select export List, and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then click properties.
4. On the General tab, Startup type, click Automatic, Manual, Disabled, or automatic (Delayed Start).
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click the Log On tab, and then do one of the following.
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using the Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.PSL script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the 70-417 exam following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy – ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
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QUESTION 34.You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has
mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external
domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for
each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information
only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list. 070-347 exam Answer: D, F
QUESTION 35.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000
people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will
take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the
employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the
migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in
plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only Answer: C QUESTION 36.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email
messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language
content and IP addresses of the country or region of origin.
Which filters and options should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate 070-347 dumps answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 37
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the
same scrambling code group.
070-347 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 39
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic
power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB. C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D QUESTION 40
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450
for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
070-347 vce Answer: D QUESTION 41
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D QUESTION 42
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLDCH, it
retransmits the message RRCConnectionReleaseComplete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the
idle mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
070-347 vce Answer: A QUESTION 43
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink
throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64,
0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76. B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D QUESTION 44
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE
should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
070-347 exam Answer: D QUESTION 45
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours
the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C QUESTION 46
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging
information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B.by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn’t know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality. 070-347 dumps Answer: C QUESTION 47
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data. Answer: B QUESTION 48
The WCDMA – GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
070-347 pdf Answer: A QUESTION 49
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
Answer: D QUESTION 50
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is
under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
070-347 vce Answer: A QUESTION 51
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent
AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C.URA-PCH state.
D.CELLFACH state. QUESTION 52
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2
kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many
sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area
of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
070-347 exam Answer: D QUESTION 53
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B QUESTION 54
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the
outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A QUESTION 55
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies. 070-347 dumps Answer: B QUESTION 56
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM
possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C QUESTION 57
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
070-347 pdf Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer: QUESTION 59
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
070-347 vce Answer: C QUESTION 60
What is a typical value (in dB) of the “PtxPrimaryCPICH” parameter (this parameter
determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC
WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100 Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which applications can be created on Webex Teams developer portal? A. Adapters and AppTies B. Java and Python programs C. Pages and Snapins D. Integrations and Bots Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid? A. CCW order B. Customer Smart Account C. Product Access Key (PAK) D. Holding Account Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid? A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan. B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased. C. SWSS is only for data center customers. D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners? A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders B. quote and order resale product only C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers D. ordering tool for Distributors only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter? A. Webex Edge Connect B. An Apple iPad C. Room Kit Plus Connector D. Cisco Meeting Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which Webex Edge service uses +E.164 numbers? A. Webex Edge does not support +E.164 numbers B. Webex Edge Audio C. Webex Edge Video Mesh D. Webex Edge Management Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which action for Cisco Proximity is valid? A. Pair to a nearby Cisco room device and wirelessly share content to the meeting B. Determine which attendee would be the most effective presenter based on latency C. Pair to the room lightning system through infrared D. Locate the attendees based on network IP address Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan? A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams B. Meetings with Teams C. Video conferencing only D. Calling with Teams Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers? A. Salesforce and Sales Connect B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which statement best describes Webex Edge Audio? A. Webex Edge Audio uses the existing Cisco UCM and Expressway products to pass the audio traffic over the Internet to the Webex meeting. B. Webex Edge Audio only works with ISDN lines. C. Webex Edge Audio requires Webex Edge Video Mesh to function correctly. D. Webex Audio is limited to 10 participants. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Who defines the Webex Teams retention policy? A. Each user defines their own retention policy B. Each customer defines its own retention policy C. Local governments define retention policy D. Cisco defines the retention policy Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages? A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations. B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications. C. Yes, only if everyone agrees. D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which statement about Development on the Webex platform is valid? A. only available for customer organizations B. pay per use C. Webex does not support developers D. free for everyone Correct Answer: B
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