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A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk Correct Answer: C If the etherchannel was configured with mode “auto”, it was using PagP, so, we need to configure the other switch with “desirable” mode. PagP modes: auto | Desirable LACP modes: active | pasive
QUESTION 3 A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically? A. enable dynamic MAC address learning B. implement static MAC addressing. C. enable sticky MAC addressing D. implement auto MAC address learning Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What is the function of a server? A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain. B. It provides shared applications to end users. C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices. D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? A. TTL B. MAC address forwarding C. Collision avoidance D. Port blocking Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 9 Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? A. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries B. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output? A. show ip route B. show cdp neighbor C. show ip interface D. show interface Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption? A. ISATAP B. GRE over iPsec C. iPsec over ISATAP D. GRE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
A. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2 B. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.2.0/24 network C. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network D. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
Which path is used by the router for internet traffic ? A. 209.165.200.0/27 B. 10.10.10.0/28 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.10.13.0/24 Correct Answer: C
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Cisco CCNA 200–301 vs 200–125
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Some topics that were not so important in theory were deleted. On the other hand, some important and more important topics were also introduced. The added topics (such as WirelessLAN, DHCP snooping, and JSON) are more valuable than the deleted topics (such as RIP and eBGP).
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Exam PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals
Languages: English, Spanish, German, Chinese (Simplified), French, Korean, Japanese
Certifications: Fundamentals
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QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP A company is building a Power Apps Portal. You need to select page components. Which components should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct requirements. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You plan to send an email notification to a user when a new file is placed in a specific folder in OneDrive for Business. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 You create a business rule on the contact entity to enforce the requirement that users must enter either a telephone number, fax number, or an email when creating a new record. The company decides to remove the fax number from the condition. You need to update the business rule. What are two ways of achieving the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Save a copy of the rule and change the condition. Deactivate and delete the original rule. B. Deactivate the business rule and change the condition. C. Take a snapshot of the business rule and change the condition. D. Change the condition and activate the change. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-rules
QUESTION 5 A company uses Microsoft 365, SharePoint Online, and Dynamics 365 Sales. You need to recommend tools to build a solution that meets the following requirements: 1. Synchronize data daily from an external Microsoft SQL Server instance. 2. Send an out-of-the box report automatically to specific company executives. 3. Ensure that opportunities over a specified amount are approved by a sales manager. Which two tools or components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Microsoft Excel B. Microsoft Word C. Power BI D. Common Data Service E. Power Automate Correct Answer: DE Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/data-integrator https://www.powerobjects.com/blog/2019/04/05/flow-approval-process/
QUESTION 6 A large retail company implements Power Apps, Microsoft Flow, and the Common Data Service. The board of directors is asking whether users are finding value in the technology. The company would like to measure and report usage of the software. You need to recommend a tool to determine software usage. What should you recommend? A. Microsoft Intune B. Azure Stream Analytics C. Power Platform Analytics D. Dynamics 365 Product Insights Correct Answer: C The Power Platform Analytics Usage report is the default report seen by the logged-in environment admin. It provides total app launches and daily active users across all apps in the environment. Admins can filter the view with attributes like device platform, player version, country, state, and city. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/analytics-powerapps
QUESTION 8 A carpet cleaning company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The process for entering customer information during onsite sales calls is very complicated. The company wants a the simplified screen that allows salespeople to capture the customer name, phone number, and other information while speaking to the customer. You need to recommend a solution that works on various types of mobile devices. What should you recommend? A. Common Data Service B. Power Automate C. AI Builder D. Canvas app E. Power BI Correct Answer: D Reference: https://powerapps.microsoft.com/en-us/build-powerapps/
QUESTION 9 A company builds and sells residential apartments. The company uses Dynamics 365 Sales to manage sales opportunities. Management must receive notifications on their mobile devices when sales opportunities are created. You need to select recommend Power Platform components to address the requirements. Which two components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each selection is worth one point. A. Common Data Service connector B. Power BI C. Power Automate D. AI Builder Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.powerobjects.com/blog/2019/04/05/flow-approval-process/
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You are creating a model-driven Power Apps app. You want to ensure that the app can be used by individuals who have vision impairments. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Yes You can use keyboard shortcuts in PowerApps. Keyboard shortcuts give you an alternate way to do common tasks instead of using your mouse or tapping with your finger. They help in the seamless navigation of the interface. Box 2: No The following software combinations are the supported recommendations for consuming PowerApps with a screen reader: Windows: Microsoft Edge / Narrator macOS: Safari / VoiceOver Android: PowerApps app / Talkback iOS: PowerApps app / VoiceOver Box 3: Yes Users who have vision, hearing, or other impairments can use your canvas app more easily and successfully if you consider accessibility as you design how the app looks and behaves. If you\\’re not sure how to make your app more accessible, you can run the Accessibility checker in PowerApps Studio. This tool not only finds potential accessibility issues but also explains why each might be a potential problem for users who have a specific disability and offers suggestions on how to resolve each issue. The Accessibility checker detects screen-reader and keyboard issues for you, and you can find information about how to fix color-contrast issues by using accessible colors. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/user/keyboard-shortcuts https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/user/screen-reader https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/accessibility-checker
QUESTION 11 You plan to use Power Automate to perform data-management tasks when users interact with sales opportunities in Dynamics 365. You need to identify the three types of events that can generate a trigger for the tasks. Which three types of events should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. when a record is displayed in a view B. when a record is deleted C. when a record is created D. when a record is updated E. when a record is read Correct Answer: BCD Triggers like When a record is created, When a record is updated, and When a record is deleted initiate your flow within a few minutes of the event occurring. In rare cases, your flow can take up to 2 hours to trigger. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/connection-dynamics365
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT A company needs to create several workflows and applications to help streamline its sales operations. You need to determine which applications are appropriate for given scenarios. Which applications should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP You plan to use Microsoft Flow to monitor what people are saying about your company\\’s products. You store the feedback for research and development purposes. You need to recommend Flow components to use for the solution. To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct requirements. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place
Box 1: Trigger A trigger is something that triggers or starts the workflow. It could be a new file uploaded to a document library, a new item created in the list or an email sent to your Inbox – something that will start (kick-off the workflow). There are two types of triggers: 1. The automatic trigger is pre-programmed into the workflow based on a certain rule (i.e. new document or item created, email sent, etc.) 2. A manual Trigger is a trigger initiated by a user. Unlike with the automatic trigger above, the workflow will only start when initiated manually by the end-user (for example, from the Document Library for a selected file). The manual trigger is only supported for certain types of workflows (i.e. Get feedback from your manager for the selected file) Box 2: action An action is something that occurs as a result of the workflow. Box 3: expression Sometimes users just need to do basic operations like getting the current time, adding numbers together, or replacing a part of a string of text. That\\’s possible inline in any flow action. Microsoft Flow leverages the same Workflow Definition The language used by Azure Logic apps. For new users who are unfamiliar with the expression language, there is an inline help experience that shows how to use each expression as they build out their flow. Box 4: flow type There are four different Flow types that you can choose from when starting out. You can create a scheduled flow, automated flow, instant flow, or a business process flow. Reference: https://sharepointmaven.com/3-major-components-microsoft-flow/ https://www.avepoint.com/blog/office-365/office-365-automation/ https://flow.microsoft.com/de-de/blog/use-expressions-in-actions/
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QUESTION 1 Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN secure extensible network provides a single pane of glass approach to network monitoring and configuration? A. APIC-EM B. vSmart C. vManage D. vBond Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 An engineer wants to track tunnel characteristics within a SLA-based policy for convergence. Which policy configuration will achieve this goal? A. App-route policy B. VPN membership policy C. Control policy D. Data policy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which two image formats are supported for controller codes? (Choose two.) A. .nxos B. .qcow2 C. .ova D. .bin E. Tgz Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which two services are critical for zero touch provisioning on-boarding? (Choose two ) A. SNMP B. DNS C. DHCP D. AAA E. EMAIL Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
What does the BFD value of 8 represent? A. number of BFD sessions B. hello timer of BFD session C. poll-interval of BFD session . D. dead timer of BFD session Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which pathway under Monitor > Network > Select Device is used to verify service insertion configuration? A. Real Time B. System Status C. ACL Logs D. Events Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct templates on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 In an AWS cloud, which feature provision WAN Edge routers automatically in Cisco SD-WAN? A. Cloud app B. Cloud OnRamp C. vAnalytics D. Network Designer Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 2 While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work? A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been called to configure the four PE devices in order to enable full communication among the four CE devices connected to them. While starting to configure, he experienced a connectivity issue. Which two tasks should the engineer perform in order to begin the process correctly? (Choose two.) A. Configure PE3 to export route-targets 100:1 and 200:2. B. Configure PE3 to import route-targets 100:1 and 200:2. C. Configure PE4 to import route-targets 101:1 and 202:2. D. Configure PE2 to export route-targets 300:3 and 400:4. E. Configure PE1 to import route-targets 300:3 and 400:4. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the EVPN components from the left onto the correct planes on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5 Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.) A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4. B. They are represented as 32-bit values C. They are represented as 64-bit values. D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router. E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this output is true? A. The router IP 192.168.1.2 sent an implicit null, and the output is from the penultimate LSR. B. The adjacent router is the egress LSR and has mpls ldp explicit-null configured. C. The adjacent LSR router configured mpls label range 0. D. The zero in the second column is the normal behavior of an egress router LSR. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the result of this configuration? A. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as E1 routes. B. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as E2 routes. C. R1 mutually redistributes routes between BGP 65001 and the OSPF process of VRF custabc. D. R1 redistributes BGP routes into the OSPF process of VRF custabc as OIA routes. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured, but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem? A. Change the source IP address. B. Add the IP address to the VRF table. C. Remove the VRF from the interface. D. Configure static routes for the VRF. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html
QUESTION 10 An engineer is troubleshooting an EoMPLS circuit on a Cisco IOS XR router interface that removes a VLAN from the distribution layer. Which configuration should the engineer apply in order to accomplish the task? A. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 B. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 2/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 D. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag translate 1-to-1 dot1ad 10 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 An engineer is troubleshooting AToM on an IOS XE router and receives an error when creating the xconnect. Which command does he need to complete to create the xconnect in AToM? A. encapsulation mpls B. encapsulation 12tpv3 C. protocol 12tpv3 D. protocol none Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this command is true? A. It must be configured on each PE router to enable the PE routers to receive multicast traffic for this particular MVRF. B. It is used to set the designated router on a link using PIM-SM. C. It must be configured on the PE and CE router to enable MP-BGP to send labels for CSC. D. It is used to set the router that will server as the root bridge for STP. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg/lsmmldp.html
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The Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification is about cloud services and the basics of how Microsoft Azure provides these services. It is commonly referred to by its course code, the AZ-900. To get it, the only thing you should do is to understand it. Let’s explore it in detail below. With Pass4itsure materials (https://www.pass4itsure.com/microsoft-certified-azure-fundamentals.html), you will sure to pass the exams and get the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification.
Checklist
Answer the most interesting questions about Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Overview: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Benefits of Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification
Comparison of Azure with other cloud platforms such as AWS and Google Cloud
How to Prepare for Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Certification
Pass4itsure Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Answer the most interesting questions about Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Is Azure Fundamentals Certification worth it?
Although the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certificate is not necessary for more professional Azure training, it does provide basic knowledge and skills to streamline the learning and completion process.Lay a good foundation for future learning.
How do I pass Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam?
The exam corresponding to the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification is AZ-900 :Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Before preparing for the AZ-900 exam, it is important to have a full understanding of these modules. Practice exams are essential to passing the exam!
Overview: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Azure Fundamentals certification is suitable for candidates who are just starting to use cloud-based solutions and services or who are new to Azure.
Required exams: AZ-900 measures your ability to understand the following concepts: cloud concepts; core Azure services; security, privacy, compliance, and trust; and Azure pricing and support.Is a 60-minute evaluation.
Below is more about the exam you might want to know:
Describe cloud concepts (15-20%)
Describe core Azure services (30-35%)
Describe security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
Describe Azure pricing Service Level Agreements, and Lifecycles (20-25%)
Note! The content of the AZ-900 exam will be updated on September 15, 2020
Benefits of Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certificates are universally accepted, so they can help you improve your career while working in any organization around the world. If you want to work in an exciting new job and learn more about cloud computing, then the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification may be an important first step.
Comparison of Microsoft Azure with other cloud platforms such as AWS and Google Cloud
Azure is the second most popular cloud platform after Amazon Web Services (AWS).
Microsoft Azure has 3 major competitive advantages
1.AWS provides better services for ML and AI, but Azure does better. Azure divides their AI services into many small isolated services, and they have data-based role authentication at the correlation layer. This makes these roles easier to accept by aspiring developers.
2.When you want to sell software to large companies, the general requirement for purchase is to use Microsoft Active Directory for single sign-on, and Azure has the same advantages here.
3.Microsoft acquired GitHub and ported its functions directly to Azure.
Azure is able to compete on cost, niche cloud-offerings, easy integration, and developers’ familiarity with Microsoft software.
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QUESTION 4 You are asked to write an application that interacts directly with the internal APIs belonging to rpd. Which statement is true in this scenario? A. You must write the application using the XML APIs B. You must write the application using the REST APIs C. You must write the application using the JET APIs D. You must write the application using the YANG APIs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 In a Python commit script, which object provides the post-inheritance candidate configuration? A. Commit-Script-Input B. Junos_Configuration C. Candidate_Configuration D. Checkout_Configuration Correct Answer: B Python automation scripts import the Junos_Context dictionary when the script must access information about the script execution environment. The Junos_Configuration object is required when the commit script must read and manipulate the post-inheritance candidate configuration. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/reference/general/junos-script-automation-boilerplate-commit-scripts.html
QUESTION 6 What is correctly formatted JSON string?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which data serialization method does the Junos CLI use to communicate with the Junos management process (mgd)? A. JSON B. gRPC C. XML D. YAML Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit: You need to programmatically extract interface information using PyEZ from your MX Series device. You log in and use the show interfaces terse | display xml rpc command and see the information shown in the exhibit. What is the correct PyEZ syntax to accomplish this task?
A. dev.rpc.get-interface-information() B. dev.rpc.get_interface_information(terse=True) C. dev.rpc.get-interface-information(terse=True) D. dev.rpc.get_interface_information() Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 With which three processes does the JET service process communicate? (Choose three) A. snmpd B. ancpd C. cosd D. mgd E. rpd Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 11 Click the Exhibit button. Exhibit:
Your manager asks you to troubleshoot an Ansible problem when logging into a Junos device. You notice the Ansible play in question has a vars_files argument that calls the variables.yml entry file. The contents of that file are displayed in the exhibit. What is happening in this scenario? A. The file is an SSH key B. The variables.yml file is not actually a YAML file C. The file is encrypted with ansible-vault D. The file is encrypted with ansible Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos-ansible1.0/topics/task/configuration/junos-ansibleauthenticating-users.html
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Real CompTIA CAS-003 Exam Questions And Answers1-5
QUESTION 1 The finance department has started to use a new payment system that requires strict PII security restrictions on various network devices. The company decides to enforce the restrictions and configure all devices appropriately. Which of the following risk response strategies is being used? A. Avoid B. Mitigate C. Transfer D. Accept Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials? A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication. B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage. C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange. D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control. E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation. Correct Answer: E A SaaS application that has a federation server within the customer\\’s network that interfaces with the customer\\’s own enterprise user-directory service can provide single sign-on authentication. This federation server has a trust relationship with a corresponding federation server located within the SaaS provider\\’s network. Single sign-on will mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
QUESTION 3 Within the past six months, a company has experienced a series of attacks directed at various collaboration tools. Additionally, sensitive information was compromised during a recent security breach of a remote access session from an unsecure site. As a result, the company is requiring all collaboration tools to comply with the following: Secure messaging between internal users using digital signatures Secure sites for video-conferencing sessions Presence information for all office employees Restriction of certain types of messages to be allowed into the network. Which of the following applications must be configured to meet the new requirements? (Select TWO.) A. Remote desktop Latest CAS-003 Dumps | CAS-003 VCE Dumps | CAS-003 Braindumps 2 / 9 https://www.lead4pass.com/cas-003.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CAS-003 PDF and VCE dumps Download B. VoIP C. Remote assistance D. Email E. Instant messaging F. Social media websites Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4 An architect was recently hired by a power utility to increase the security posture of the company\\’s power generation and distribution sites. Upon review, the architect identifies legacy hardware with highly vulnerable and unsupported software driving critical operations. These systems must exchange data with each other, be highly synchronized, and pull from the Internet time sources. Which of the following architectural decisions would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful attack without harming operational capability? (Choose two.) A. Isolate the systems on their own network B. Install a firewall and IDS between systems and the LAN C. Employ own stratum-0 and stratum-1 NTP servers D. Upgrade the software on critical systems E. Configure the systems to use government-hosted NTP servers Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation? A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products. B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete. C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO. D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly. Correct Answer: D
Real CompTIA CLO-002 Exam Questions And Answers1-5
QUESTION 1 A requirement states that an application must be restored within six hours. Which of the following should be included in the SLA to satisfy this requirement? A. MTTR B. RPO C. ROI D. RTO Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A cloud administrator for an ISP identified a vulnerability in the software that controls all the firewall rules for a geographic area. To ensure the software upgrade is properly tested, approved, and applied, which of the following processes should the administrator follow? A. Configuration management B. Incident management C. Resource management D. Change management Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A company is migrating its e-commerce platform to a cloud service provider. The e-commerce site has a significant number of images. Which of the following is the BEST storage type for storing the images? A. Object B. Cold C. File D. Block Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A company has been running tests on a newly developed algorithm to increase the responsiveness of the application. Latest CLO-002 Dumps | CLO-002 Practice Test | CLO-002 Exam Questions 2 / 7 https://www.lead4pass.com/clo-002.html 2020 Latest lead4pass CLO-002 PDF and VCE dumps Download The company\\’s monthly bills for the testing have been much higher than expected. Which of the following documents should the company examine FIRST? A. Memory report B. Compute report C. Network report D. Storage report Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A cloud administrator configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server remotely. Which of the following BEST describes the type of policy being used? A. Audit B. Authorization C. Hardening D. Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 1 An investigation showed a worm was introduced from an engineer\\’s laptop. It was determined the company does not provide engineers with company-owned laptops, which would be subject to company policy and technical controls. Which of the following would be the MOST secure control implement? A. Deploy HIDS on all engineer-provided laptops, and put a new router in the management network. B. Implement role-based group policies on the management network for client access. C. Utilize a jump box that is only allowed to connect to clients from the management network. D. Deploy a company-wide approved engineering workstation for management access. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A security analyst is creating baseline system images to remediate vulnerabilities found in different operating systems. Each image needs to be scanned before it is deployed. The security analyst must ensure the configurations match industry standard benchmarks and the process can be repeated frequently. Which of the following vulnerability options would BEST create the process requirements? A. Utilizing an operating system SCAP plugin B. Utilizing an authorized credential scan C. Utilizing a non-credential scan D. Utilizing a known malware plugin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts B. Disable the user accounts C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 A cybersecurity analyst traced the source of an attack to compromised user credentials. Log analysis revealed that the attacker successfully authenticated from an unauthorized foreign country. Management asked the security analyst to research and implement a solution to help mitigate attacks based on compromised passwords. Which of the following should the analyst implement? A. Self-service password reset B. Single sign-on C. Context-based authentication D. Password complexity Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 The human resources division is moving all of its applications to an IaaS cloud. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has asked the security architect to design the environment securely to prevent the IaaS provider from accessing its data-atrest and data-in-transit within the infrastructure. Which of the following security controls should the security architect recommend? A. Implement a non-data breach agreement B. Ensure all backups are remote outside the control of the IaaS provider C. Ensure all of the IaaS provider\\’s workforce passes stringent background checks D. Render data unreadable through the use of appropriate tools and techniques Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 1 An organization allows clients to retrieve information on earthquake events. This is a description of which of the following classifications? A. XaaS B. DaaS C. CaaS D. SaaS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following authentication types is being required when a user must swipe a key card and then enter a password before being allowed access to the server room? A. Multi-factor authentication B. Single sign-on C. Biometric authentication D. Single-factor authentication Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 After deploying multiple copies of database servers, data scrambling is started on them to anonymize user data. A few minutes later, the systems administrator receives multiple complaints regarding the performance of other VMs. CPU and memory have been eliminated as possible bottlenecks. Which of the following should be verified NEXT as a possible bottleneck? A. Storage array B. Database drivers C. Hardware load balancer D. Internet connection speed Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A company has just completed a security audit and received initial results from the auditor. The results show that the ethical hacker was able to gain access to the company servers by exploiting non-hardened VMs and hosts as guests and administrators. Which of the following should be implemented to harden the environment? (Select two.) A. Discretionary access controls B. Disable unnecessary accounts C. Change default passwords D. Install antivirus software E. Role-based access controls Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A security administrator wants to automate the implementation of network-based ACLs for services deployed within the company VPC. The security administrator is mostly concerned with intra-VPN separation to prevent unauthorized communication between cloud deployed services within the VPC. Which of the following should the security administrator implement? A. Include a list of the firewall rules in the orchestration script B. Use the cloud API to deploy and configure anti-malware services C. Configure the appropriate IDS rules using the cloud portal D. Write custom scripts to deploy a network ACL between the VPC and the company\\’s network Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 1 Which command is used to add OpenSSH private keys to a running ssh-agent instance? (Specify the file name only without any path.) A. ssh-add Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is true about groups in a Linux system? (Choose two correct answers.) A. Each user may be a member of several groups. However, only one group is the user\\’s primary group. B. Groups may have a password that allows users to join that group temporarily. C. Each user can only be a member of one group at a time. D. Group memberships are optional such that there may be users that do not belong to any group. E. Groups can be nested meaning that one group can be a member of another group. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file? A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root. B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow. C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow. D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The presence of what file will temporarily prevent all users except root from logging into the system? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.) A. /etc/nologin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which parameter must be passed to ifconfig to activate a previously inactive network interface? (Specify the parameter only without any command, path or additional options) A. up Correct Answer: A
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Microsoft MB-330 Practice Exam question 1-13
QUESTION 1 You are the materials manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for setting up the ABC classification of all items as follows: 1. Class A materials represent 70 percent of the material value. 2. Class B materials represent 20 percent of the material value. 3. Class C materials represent 10 percent of the material value but are the most commonly used. You need to assign an ABC classification value model to all items using those values. What should you do? A. Run the ABC classification report B. Run the ABC classification periodic task to update the value model for all items C. Manually update the Value classification on the Released product record D. Run the ABC classification periodic task to update the revenue model for all items Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You are the product manager at a distribution company. You are responsible for managing product compliance standards and reporting. Chemical product, C0001 can be sold in all parts of the United States except for the state of California. You need to set up these compliance requirements for C0001. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 Inventory in a warehouse is assigned to an inventory status of available. You need to set up an inventory status for damaged items so that they are not sold to customers. Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT A company plans to stock new items and value those items by using FIFO principle. The company has multiple sites set up. There are multiple warehouses for each site. You must be able to view the value and quantity of these items at each warehouse. You need to apply FIFO costing per warehouse. How should you complete the costing setup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 A company is implementing sales order functionality in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company has a business requirement to fulfill sales orders by using direct delivery. You need to enter a direct delivery sales order so that a purchase order is automatically created. What should you do after you enter the sales order and lines? A. Set the ship complete toggle to On and confirm the order on the sales order header. B. Select automatic and confirm the sales order on the line level setup tab in the reservation field. C. Change the customer\\’s address to the vendor\\’s direct delivery address and confirm the sales order. D. Select the direct delivery option under the sales order action pane and complete the form. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company plans to simplify interactions between purchasing department employees and vendors. You need to ensure that employees are redirected to a vendor\\’s online store to select items for inclusion on purchase requisitions. Solution: Create a retail product catalog. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/supply-chain/procurement/set-up-external-catalog-forpunchout
QUESTION 7 An employee at a company needs to lay out the various component builds for bicycles. You need to identify which constraints the employee should use to set up the bicycles. Which two types of constraints achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. table constraints that are used generically among product configuration models B. expression constraints that are used generically among product configuration models C. expression constraints that are unique to each product configuration model D. table constraints that are always unique to each product configuration model Correct Answer: AC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/pim/expression-constraintstable-constraints-product-configuration-models
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is implementing inventory management in Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. The company needs to block inventory and ensure that physical inventory will not be reserved by other outbound transactions. You need to select the appropriate option to block the inventory in the system. Solution: Select the full blocking option in the item sampling page. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/inventory/inventoryblocking
QUESTION 9 A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. A customer returns a product that is defective for a replacement. You need to process the return order. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a return of type Credit Only B. Set the deadline date according to the company policy C. Create a credit note for the replaced product D. Set the delivery address to the customer\\’s address in the return order E. Create a return of type Physical Return F. Set the deadline date to the date the customer returns the defective product G. Set the delivery address to the company warehouse in the return order Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 10 You need to implement location directives in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Which objects should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct permissions. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance. The finance department processes royalty claims using the accounts payable module. You need to pass the claims to the accounts payable group for payment. Which three events will occur? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. A Royalty accrual journal posting reverses the previous interim postings for accrual and expense amounts. B. A credit is posted to the vendor\\’s payable account. C. A vendor invoice for the royalty payment is set to draft. D. A new vendor invoice for the royalty is created and posted. E. A hold is put on the amounts held in the royalty fees account. Correct Answer: ABD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/accounts-payable/royalty-contract
QUESTION 12 A company plans to use warehouse management and dock appointment scheduling in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to configure the system. Which configuration options should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration options to the correct requirements. Each configuration option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer
QUESTION 13 A company manufactures wood furniture. Cabinets can be purchased with different wood finishes including oak and maple. You need to configure a product attribute to characterize the types of cabinet finishes. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
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Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations MB-310
Set up and configure financial management (35-40%)
Manage and apply common processes (20-25%)
Implement and manage accounts payable and receivable (20-25%)
QUESTION 1 A client has one legal entity and the following four dimensions configured: Business Unit, Cost Center, Department, and Division. You need to configure the client\\’s system to run the trial balance inquiry in the General ledger module so that it displays the trial balance in two ways: Include the main account and all four dimensions. Include the main account and only the business unit and cost center dimensions. What should you configure? A. two account structures B. two derived financial dimension hierarchies C. all financial dimensions by using the group dimension functionality D. two financial dimension sets Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A company needs to create budget plan templates for its budgeting process. You need to create the budget plan templates. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 You are configuring budgeting components in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You need to configure multiple budgets. What are three budgeting options you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Cost management budget, including Production and Resource groups B. Sales budget, including Campaigns and Events C. Workforce budget, including Compensation groups and Positions D. Project budget, including Items and Fees E. Ledger budget, including Revenue and Expense types Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6 You create a financial dimension set named MA + DEPT + PROJ as shown in the following screenshot. The financial dimension set includes the following dimensions: Main Account Department Project
Use the drop-down menu to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 An organization uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Several posted journal entries contain invalid main account and dimension combinations. This leads to incorrect financial reporting. You need to prevent these invalid combinations. What should you do? A. Configure the account structure to specify which financial dimensions are valid for which main accounts. B. Train users to select the Validate button in the current journal configuration so that the correct account and dimension combination is used. C. Configure financial dimension sets to limit which financial dimensions are valid for which main accounts. D. Associate the correct main accounts to that financial dimension on the financial dimension setup form. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/configureaccount-structures
QUESTION 8 A client is implementing Accounts payable. The client wants to establish three-way matching for 100 of their 5,000 stocked items from a specific vendor. The client requires the ability to have items that require only two-way matching and specific items that require three-way matching. You need to configure the system in the most efficient manner to achieve these requirements. What should you do? A. Configure a company matching policy of a three-way match B. Configure a company matching policy of non-required and specify the items that require a three-way match C. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and set the matching policy for specific item and vendor combination level to three-way matching D. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the items that require a three-way match E. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the vendors that require a three-way match Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/accounts-payable/tasks/set-upaccounts-payable-invoice-matching-validation
QUESTION 9 You are asked to configure foreign currency revaluation in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You are viewing the main accounts.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 A client plans to use Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for year-end 1099 reporting in the United States. You are viewing a vendor master data record on the 1099 FastTab.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You are configuring vendor collaboration security roles for external vendors. You manually set up a vendor contact. You need to assign the Vendor (external) role to this vendor. Which tasks can this vendor perform? A. Add a new or existing contact person to the vendor accounts that they are a contact for B. View consignment inventory C. Request a new user account for a contact person by using the Provision user action D. View and modify contact person information, such as the person\\’s title, email address, and telephone number Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/procurement/set-upmaintain-vendor-collaboration
QUESTION 12 A client uses Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for accounts receivable. You need to configure the method of payment to enforce the accounts receivable clerk to enter the wire number for the received electronic payment. Which item should you set up as mandatory? A. Select bank transaction type B. Select payment reference C. Select Payment ID D. Select Deposit slip Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A client observes that some customers are late paying their invoices. The client wants to use the Credit and Collections functionality to send collection letters to customers. You need to configure the system to support collection letter functionality and processing. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the HyperV server role installed and are part of a host group named Groupl in Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Server1 and Server2 have identical hardware, software, and settings. You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on a host exceeds 65 percent. The current load on the servers is shown following table.
You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VMS. VMS has a CPU utilization of 20 percent. You discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. What should you modify from the Dynamic Optimization configuration? A. The Host Reserve threshold B. The Power Optimization threshold C. The Aggressiveness level D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 HyperV hosts in a failover cluster. The HyperV hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs). You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements: The virtual machines must support live migration. The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers. Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) B. An NFS share C. Storage pools D. SMB 3.0 shares Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 Your network contains two data centers named DataCenterl and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a lowlatency highspeed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple HyperV hosts that run Windows Server 20l2. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the HyperV hosts. You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements: Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single HyperV host fails. Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend? A. One failover cluster in DataCenterl and HyperV replicas to DataCenter2 B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenterl C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You have a HyperV host named Hyperl that has Windows Server 20l2 installed. Hyperl hosts 20 virtual machines. HyperV has one physical network adapter. You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyperl to all of the virtual machines. What should you modify? A. The settings of the virtual switch B. The settings of the virtual network adapter C. The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter D. The settings of the legacy network adapter Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Your network contains a HyperV cluster named Clusterl. You install Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You create a user account for another administrator named Userl. You plan to provide Userl with the ability to manage only the virtual machines that Userl creates. You need to identify what must be created before you delegate the required permissions. What should you identify? A. A service template B. A Delegated Administrator C. A cloud D. A host group Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a second System Center 20l2 infrastructure in a test environment. You create a service template named Templatel in both System Center 20l2 infrastructures. For selfservice users, you create a service offering for Templatel. The users create 20 instances of Templatel. You modify Templatel in the test environment. You export the service template to a file named Templatel.xml. You need to ensure that the changes to Templatel can be applied to the existing instances in the production environment. What should you do when you import the template? A. Overwrite the current service template. B. Change the name of the service template. C. Create a new service template. D. Change the release number of the service template. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table
Serverl uses the storage shown in the following table.
You perform the following tasks: On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B. On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3. On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4. You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clusl. On Clusl, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B. You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Serverl. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files. You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files. Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)? A. \\Server3\Share3 B. \\Server2\Share2B C. \\Clusl\Share5B D. \\Server4\Share4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The network contains a System Center 20l2 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) deployment. The domain contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You install System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) on the nodes in Cluster2. You configure VMM to use a database in Clusterl. Server5 is the first node in the cluster. You need to back up the VMM encryption key. What should you back up? A. A full system backup of Server1 B. A full system backup of Server3 C. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Server5 D. A backup of the Windows\DigitalLocker folder on Serverl Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. The cluster has Dynamic Optimization enabled. You deploy three highly available virtual machines to the cluster by using System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to prevent Dynamic Optimization from placing any of the three virtual machines in the same node. What should you do? A. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Compati ility settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. B. Set the Priority property of the virtual machine cluster role. C. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Servicing Windows settings of the virtual machines. D. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Availability settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Webl and Web2. Webl and Web2 run Windows Server 20l2. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Webl and Web2. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation. What should you recommend? A. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet. B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server. C. Remove both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. D. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create two new alias (CNAME) records named Intranet. Map each CNAME record to a Web server name. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Your company has a main office and a branch office. You plan to implement a failover cluster named Clusterl to host an application named Appl. The data of Appl will replicate to all of the nodes in Clusterl. Clusterl will contain two servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table
The cluster nodes will not use shared storage. The branch office contains two file servers named Server3 and Server4. You need to ensure that Appl fails over automatically to another server if a single node in Clusterl fails. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Add Server3 as a node in Clusterl. B. Add Serverl, Server2, and Server3 to a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. C. Add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Cluster2. Install Appl on Cluster2. D. Add Server3 as a file share witness for Clusterl. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office. You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements: Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office. Minimizes data loss. What should you include in the plan? A. HyperV replicas B. Live migration C. Virtual machine checkpoints D. System state restores Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 20l2 or Windows Server 200S R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 200S R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 200S. The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle Bin. You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy. Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 200S R2. B. Run the EnableADOptionalFeature cmdlet. C. Run the NewADObject cmdlet. D. Run the SetServer cmdletE. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 20l2. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14 Your network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 7 and a custom application named Appl. Appl uses data stored in a shared folder. You have a failover cluster named Clusterl that contains two servers named Serverl and Server2. Serverl and Server2 run Windows Server 20l2 and are connected to an iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN). You plan to move the shared folder to Clusterl. You need to recommend which cluster resource must be created to ensure that the shared folder can be accessed from Clusterl. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. The Generic Application cluster role B. The DFS Namespace Server cluster role C. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for general use type D. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for scaleout application data type Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), you modify the properties of the service template. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Service Level Tracking object. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Monitor Override. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the User certificate template, and then you modify the extensions of the copy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the Basic EFS template, you assign the Allow Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the Basic EFS certificate template, and then you modify the validity period of the copy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Your network contains multiple servers that run Windows Server 2012. You plan to implement three virtual disks. The virtual disks will be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify the minimum number of physical disks required for each virtual disk. How many disks should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate number of disks to the correct virtual disk in the answer area. Each number of disks may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additi nally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 27 Your company has four offices. The offices are located in Montreal, Seattle, New York, and Miami. Users access all of the web-based resources by using web proxy servers. The IP addresses of the web proxies at each office are configured as shown in the following table.
The connections to the web proxies are balanced by using round－robin DNS. The company plans to deploy a new application. The new application has a farm of front－end web servers that connect to a back－end application server. When a session to a web server is established, the web server stores data until the session closes. Once the session closes, the data is sent to the application server. You need to ensure that the incoming sessions to the web server farm are distributed among the web servers. The solution must ensure that if a web server fails, the users are NOT directed to the failed server. How should you configure the port rule? To answer, select the appropriate opti ns in the answer area
QUESTION 28 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster named Clusterl that contains four nodes. Clusterl hosts a web application named App1. The session state information of App1 is stored in a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The network contains four subnets. You discover that all of the users from a subnet named Subnetl always connect to the same NLB node. You need to ensure that all of the users from each of the subnets connect equally across all of the nodes in Clusterl. What should you modify from the port settings? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
QUESTION 29 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. The domain contains a server named Serverl. Server1 is a certification authority (CA). All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to deploy BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) to all client computers. The unique identifier for your organization is set to Contoso. You need to ensure that you can recover the BitLocker encrypted data by using a BitLocker data recovery agent. You must be able to perform the recovery from any administrative computer. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 30 You plan to deploy a certification authority (CA) infrastructure that contains the following servers: An offiine standalone root CA named CA1 An enterprise subordinate CA named CA2 On all of the computers, you import the root CA certificate from CA1 to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities Certificates store. You need to ensure that CA2 can issue certificates for the CA hierarchy. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
QUESTION 31 Your network contains five physical servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 32 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) is deployed to the domain. In VMM, you create a host group named HostGroupl. You add a l6－node Hyper－V failover cluster to HostGroupl. From Windows PowerShell, you run the following commands:
Use the drop－down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
QUESTION 33 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple servers that are configured as Hyper－V hosts. You plan to implement four virtual machines. The virtual machines will be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which network must be added to each virtual machine. Which network types should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate Network Type to the correct virtual machine in the answer area. Each Network Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additi nally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 34 You are planning to set up a proof-of-concept network virtualization environment. The environment will contain three servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 35 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Serverl and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are members of a failover cluster. The network contains a Storage Area Network (SAN) that has a LUN named LUN1. LUN1 is connected to a 12-TB disk on the SAN. You plan to host three new virtual machines on the failover cluster. Each virtual machine will store up to 4 TB of data on a single disk. The virtual machines will be backed up from the hosts by using the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS). You need to ensure that Server1 and Server2 can store the new virtual machines on the SAN. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 36 You have a System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) deployment. You implement Hyper-V Recovery Manager for the deployment. You create two new clouds named Cloudl and Cloud2. Metadata for both clouds is uploaded to Windows Azure. You need to ensure that the virtual machines in Cloud1 are protected by using replicas in Cloud2. Where should you perform each action? To answer, select the appropriate tool for each action in the answer area
QUESTION 37 You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains four Hyper-V hosts. Cluster1 hosts 20 virtual machines. You deploy a new failover cluster named Cluster2. You plan to replicate the virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2. You need to recommend which actions must be performed on Cluster2 for the planned deployment. Which three actions should you recommend? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 38 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3 and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are configured as file servers and are part of a failover cluster named Cluster1. Server3 and Server4 have Microsoft SQL Server 2012 installed and are part of a failover cluster named Cluster2. You add a disk named Disk1 to the nodes in Cluster1. Disk1 will be used to store the data files and log files used by SQL Server 2012. You need to configure the environment so that access to Disk1 remains available when a node on Cluster1 fails over or fails back. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 39 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Serverl has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed and is configured to have five iSCSI virtual disks. You install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature on Server2. From the MPIO snap-in, you add support for iSCSI devices. You need to ensure that Server2 can connect to the five iSCSI disks. The solution must ensure that Server2 uses MPIO to access the disks. Which three acti ns should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 40 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You prepare the forest to support Workplace Join and you enable the Device Registration Service (DRS) on Server1. You need to ensure that Workplace Join meets the following requirements: Application access must be based on device claims. Users who attempt to join their device to the workplace through Server2 must be prevented from locking out their Acti Directory account due to invalid credenti ls. Which cmdlet should you run to achieve each requirement? To answer, select the cmdlet for each requirement in the answer area.
QUESTION 41 You use the entire System Center suite. You integrate Service Manager with Operations Manager, Virtual Machine Manager, Orchestrator, and Active Directory. You perform all remediation by using Orchestrator runbooks. An application experiences performance problems on a periodic basis. You have the following requirements: A new incident must be opened when System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) detects a performance problem. The incident must be closed when the performance problem is resolved. The incident must be associated with the HR performance problem in Service Manager. You need to configure the environment.
QUESTION 42 You are planning to set up a proof-of-concept network virtualization environment. The environment will contain three servers. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
VMM will be used to manage the virtualization environment. Server2 runs three virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to use network virtualization. You need to enable network connectivity between the virtual machines and Server3. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 43 You need to ensure that all new production Hyper－V virtual machines can be deployed correctly. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
QUESTION 44 You need to configure the environment to support App1. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 45 You need to create a script to deploy DFS replication. Which Windows PowerShell commands should you add to the script? To answer, select the appropriate Windows PowerShell commands in each list in the answer area.
QUESTION 46 You plan to delegate the management of virtual machines to five groups by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The network contains 20 Hyper-V hosts in a host group named HostGroup1. You identify the requirements for each group as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which user role must be assigned to each group. Which user roles should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate user role to the correct group in the answer area. Each user role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the SP1it bar between panes or scroll to view content.
QUESTION 47 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.You publish the certificate revocation list (CRL) to a farm of Web servers. You are creating a disaster recovery plan for the AD CS infrastructure. You need to recommend which actions must be performed to restore certificate revocation checking if a certification authority (CA) is offiine for an extended period of time. Which three actions should you recommend? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 48 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a failover cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed. You plan to create two virtual machines that will run an application named App1. Appl will store data on a virtual hard drive named Appldata.vhdx. Appldata.vhdx will be shared by both virtual machines. The network contains the following shared folders: An SMB file share named Share1 that is hosted on a Scale-Out File Server. An SMB file share named Share2 that is hosted on a standalone file server. An NFS share named Share3 that is hosted on a standalone file server. You need to ensure that both virtual machines can use Appldata.vhdx simultaneously. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area.
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