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  • Exam Code: 700-070
  • Exam Name: Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series Immersive Solutions
  • Q&As: 50
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QUESTION 1
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
700-070 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What causes echo or reverberation in the room during a call?
A. too many acoustic panels
B. too many hard surfaces
C. too many people
D. too many devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which infrastructure component is needed for OBTP?
A. Prime Collaboration
B. Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco TelePresence System
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the IX5000?
A. immersive collaboration
B. mobile-device use
C. desktop use
D. home use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two options are available through the participant icon? (Choose two.)
A. List all missed calls.
B. Drop a caller from the call.
C. List all participants who were dropped from the call.
D. List all participants on the call.
E. Add a caller to the call.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
How can you change presentation display options during a call?
A. Open the share tray and drag the presentation to the desired location.
B. Open the share tray and assign display numbers to each presentation.
C. Open the system settings and reconfigure the display options.
D. Open the participant list and drag the presentation to the desired location.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two standards does the IX5000 codec support? (Choose two.)
A. H.324
B. H.320
C. H.265
D. G.729AB
E. G.728
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two actions are part of the Display Connection step during endpoint configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the screen resolution.
B. Register the endpoint to Unified Communications Manager.
C. Perform an internal display cabling check.
D. Determine the system layout display on Touch 10.
E. Register the endpoint to the Cisco VCS.
700-070 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
How many hours does the initial camera setup typically require?
A. 3 to 4
B. 2 to 3
C. 1 to 2
D. less than 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which device type is correct for the IX5200?
A. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (9 seats)
B. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (18 seats)
C. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (9 seats)
D. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (18 seats)
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which installation key for the IX5000 is required for IX5000 infrastructure configuration?
A. Cisco TMS
B. Cisco VCS
C. Unified Communication Manager
D. TelePresence MCU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options to be noted during infrastructure configuration? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. number of screens
D. serial number
E. number of rows
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
Which device is a component of the IX5000?
A. ceiling-mounted microphone array
B. triple 4K UHD camera cluster
C. acoustic ceiling tile
D. Touch 8 user interface
700-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the maximum image resolution of the 4K UHD camera display in the IX5000?
A. 1080p60
B. 1280p60
C. 1080p30
D. 720p30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Where can you find presentation statistics in a point-to-point IX5000 call?
A. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General
B. Monitoring > Call Statistics > Audio Only
C. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Video
D. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Audio
700-070 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which action should you take during recabling?
A. Disconnect power.
B. Hot-swap cables.
C. Connect power.
D. Use cables interchangeably.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which step is required during pre-installation of the IX5000?
A. Hang celling lights.
B. Install wall panels.
C. Verify that the room floor is level.
D. Verify that appropriate licenses, upgrades, and tools are available.
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Where can you find the results for noise-level and reverberation tests?
A. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Reports
B. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Log Files
C. Admin GUI > Logs > Reports
D. Admin GUI > Reports > Log Files
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What should you do first when Self View display issues occur?
A. Close and re-open Self View.
B. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
C. Close and re-open the share tray.
D. Power-cycle the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
What is the proper order of steps for installing an IX5000?
A. Perform cable routing, install display frames, install tabletops, and install the codec.
B. Install tabletops, perform cable routing, install display frames, and install the codec.
C. Install display frames, install the codec, perform cable routing, and install tabletops.
D. Install display frames, install tabletops, perform cable routing, and install the codec.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
700-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
How many presentations can be shared in a direct IX5000-to-IX5000 call?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What are the room power requirements?
A. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
B. 0.95 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
C. 0.95kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
D. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
If a single microphone fails, you should first test cabling between which two points?
A. the TDM and the codec
B. the microphone bar and the Touch 10
C. the microphone bar and the codec
D. the microphone bar and the TDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Where can you find packet-transmission statistics?
A. Monitoring > Maintenance
B. Monitoring > Network Data
C. Monitoring > Statistics
D. Monitoring > Call Info
700-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
What is the minimum required number of people to install an IX5000 in one day?
A. three
B. four
C. two
D. one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What should you do first when the local Touch 10 falsely indicates that content is being shared?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
700-070 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
What should you do first when a display shows a black screen instead of presentation content after hot
swapping cables?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Where is the option to choose OBTP?
A. Booking > Basic Settings> New Conference
B. New Conference > Booking > Basic Settings > Type
C. Booking > New Conference > Basic Settings > Type
D. Basic Settings > New Conference > Booking
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

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  • Exam Name: Architecting a Citrix Virtualization Solution
  • Q&As: 77
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QUESTION 27
In the future upgraded environment, Healthy Helping Hands wants to provide the IT department with the ability to interact with user sessions for training and troubleshooting without compromising security demands. How can an architect meet the needs of the Healthy Helping Hands IT department?
A. Enable shadowing in the current environment.
B. Use Group Policy to enable Microsoft Remote Support.
C. Purchase licenses for a third party remote viewing software.
D. Enable shadowing once the environment is migrated to XenApp 5.
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
Scenario: Several users in the HR user group will be traveling to trade conferences this year to meet industry training requirements and stay current on developing trends in the field. While working remotely, these users will need to upload presentations and training material distributed during the conferences onto sponsored USB keys. Based on the analysis document, how can an architect ensure that the current environment allows the HR user group to meet this need?
A. Edit the HR Users policy to allow client mappings.
B. Provide a secure FTP site for presentation and training material uploads.
C. Maintain the current environment since it currently allows users to map their drives.
D. Move the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server to the DMZ in the environment to allow for remote connections.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Scenario: In order to ensure that additional servers and client desktops can be made available as quickly as possible, Healthy Helping Hands is eager to take advantage of the functionality of Provisioning Services to provide virtual hard drives for virtual servers and workstations. However, one of the main requirements from Healthy Helping Hands is that virtualized applications should seamlessly failover to the designated backup datacenter when necessary. What should an architect suggest for the storage of desktop and/or server vDisks in order to comply with the company’s requirement?
A. A distributed SAN to store all virtual hard drives
B. A centralized SAN to store all virtual hard drives
C. The local hard drive of the user’s file or profile server to store the virtual hard drives
D. The local hard drive of the first Provisioning Services server installed to store the virtual hard drives
1Y0-A16 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
Due to difficulties with the current Secure Gateway environment, an architect has been asked to ensure that remote users will only have to enter their credentials once in order to gain secure access to all of their resources. Which architectural components are required to best achieve this goal?
A. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL enabled and Password Manager
B. Access Gateway, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
C. Web Interface with 128-bit SSL, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
D. Access Gateway, Web Interface, Advanced Access Control and Password Manager
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Which component must an architect use to provide TLS-based encryption between the Web Interface server in the DMZ and any internal XenApp or XenDesktop servers in the final design?
A. IIS 6
B. Secure Gateway
C. Access Gateway
D. Citrix SSL Relay
1Y0-A16 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
As part of the new design, the Healthy Helping Hands organization wants to implement an additional layer of token-based authentication. Which two vendors could the architect suggest in order to provide “out-of-the-box” support for token-based authentication for Access Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. RSA
B. Vasco
C. SafeSign
D. SafeWord
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
The architect discovered two considerations during the assessment that may be addressed by enabling SmartAuditor.
What are these two considerations? (Choose two.)
A. Users report that print jobs intermittently fail.
B. Users are not able to access their applications remotely.
C. Employees are required to log off when not using PositivelyPeople.
D. Users are frustrated with the IT Staff because of application access issues.
1Y0-A16 vce Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
Scenario: After assessing the Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure, an architect recommends that all desktops be virtualized using a XenServer, XenDesktop and Provisioning Services environment. The architect also recommends purchasing XenDesktop platinum licenses. Which parameter should the architect recommend for monitoring in order to ensure integration with the organization’s existing storage solution?
A. CPU usage on the XenDesktop servers
B. Disk queue length on the XenDesktop server
C. CPU usage on the Provisioning Services servers
D. Disk queue length on the Provisioning Services servers
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
Scenario: A review of the Healthy Helping Hands architecture has identified that about 20% of users work from home or while travelling. Following complaints about the reliability of the remote access, the architect recommended deploying the Access Gateway appliance with applications and desktops provided by XenApp or XenDesktop accordingly. As part of the disaster recovery plan, Healthy Helping Hands has stated that all users must be able to connect to the Citrix
infrastructure from home. Which component of the proposed architecture may create a bottleneck during this scenario?
A. XenApp server(s)
B. XenDesktop server(s)
C. Web Interface server(s)
D. Access Gateway appliance(s)
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Scenario:
Users in the Engineering and Marketing deparments frequently suffer performance issues when accessing the CAD application and the Marketing design application, which are both resource- intensive applications. Healthy Helping Hands would like to provide the users in both the Engineering and Marketing departments with a better experience when they access these applications. Which XenApp feature can an architect enable to improve the user experience?
A. Create a Service Level Policy to enable preferential load balancing
B. Apply an Advanced load evaluator to the CAD applications and the Marketing design applications
C. Apply the Default load evaluator to the servers hosting the resource-intensive applications.
D. Apply a Custom load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
How can the architect ensure that users in the Engineering and Marketing departments have preferential access to CPU resources?
A. Apply the service level policy to the Engineering and Marketing groups based on the client name filter.
B. Apply the service level policy to the servers on which the applications reside based on the server filter.
C. Apply the service level policy to the Engineers and Marketing user groups based on the users filter.
D. Apply the service policy to the Engineering and Marketing user groups based on the Access Control filter.
1Y0-A16 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
How can the architect apply an advanced load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications?
A. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to all applications in the farm.
B. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to the servers hosting the applications.
C. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
D. Assign the Advanced load evaluator to all servers in the farm.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
How can the architect apply the Default load evaluator to the servers hosting the CAD and Marketing design applications?
A. Assign the Default load evaluator to all applications in the farm.
B. Assign the Default load evaluator to the servers hosting the applications.
C. Assign the Default load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
D. Assign the Default load evaluator to the all servers in the farm.
1Y0-A16 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
How can the architect apply the Custom load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications?
A. Assign the Custom load evaluator to all applications in the farm.
B. Assign the Custom load evaluator to the servers hosting the applications.
C. Assign the Custom load evaluator to the CAD and Marketing design applications.
D. Assign the Custom load evaluator to all servers in the farm.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Why should the architect apply the service level policy to the Engineering and Marketing groups based on the client name filter?
A. The policy allots more CPU shares to the specific user groups using these applications.
B. The policy increases the bandwidth for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups.
C. The policy allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. The policy reduces the length of time it takes for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups to access these applications.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
Why should the architect apply the service level policy to the servers on which the application resides based on the server filter?
A. The policy allots more CPU shares to those using these applications.
B. The policy increases the bandwidth for the users accessing the applications on these servers.
C. The policy allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. The policy reduces the length of time it takes for users to access these applications.
1Y0-A16 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Why should the architect create a service level policy that is applied to the Engineers and Marketing user groups based on the users filter?
A. This allots more CPU shares to those using these applications.
B. This increases the bandwidth for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups.
C. This allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. This reduces the length of time it takes for the users in the Engineers and Marketing user groups to access these applications.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
Why should the architect apply the service level policy to the Engineering and Marketing user groups based on the Access Control filter?
A. This allots more CPU shares to those using these applications.
B. This increases the bandwidth for the users accessing these applications.
C. This allots more memory to sessions in which these applications are opened.
D. This reduces the length of time it takes for users to access these applications.
1Y0-A16 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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  • Exam Code: 70-696
  • Exam Name: Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune
  • Q&As: 117
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QUESTION 1
You need to provide a solution to meet the technical requirements of Baseline1. What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Create a new collection from the baseline deployment.
B. Modify the configuration item properties.
C. Create a collection that has a limiting collection.
D. Modify the collection properties.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issues reported by the RDS users. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Set-RDCertificate cmdlet.
B. Modify the collection properties.
C. Modify the RDWeb web application settings.
D. Modify the RemoteApp program properties.
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to meet the application requirements of App1. What should you do?
A. Modify the Parameters properties of the App1 RemoteApp program.
B. Run the Set-WebBinding cmdlet.
C. Run the Set-RDRemoteApp cmdlet.
D. Modify the Application Settings of the RDWeb web application.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You deploy Microsoft updates by using Configuration Manager. An administrator manually approves all of the updates as soon as they are available in the Configuration Manager console. All computers are in the same collection. You discover that several updates cause issues on some of the computers. You need to automate the deployment of all the Microsoft updates. The solution must ensure that all new updates are deployed to a group of pilot computers first and then deployed to all other computer two days later. What should you create?
A. one new boundary group and one deployment package
B. two new boundary groups and two deployment packages
C. one new collection and two automatic deployment rules
D. one new boundary group and two deployment packages
E. one new collection and one automatic deployment rule
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed. Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer. You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues. You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation. Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.
C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that was migrated from Configuration Manager 2007 R2. You have a Windows Installer (MSI) package for an application named App1. App1 is deployed to several client computers by using Configuration Manager 2007 R2. You plan to create a configuration item to modify a registry entry that was created during the installation of App1. You need to identify which detection method must be used for the configuration item. What is the best detection method to identify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Use Windows Installer detection.
B. Always assume application is installed.
C. Use a custom script to detect this application.
D. Detect a specific application and deployment type.
70-696 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Configuration Manager is integrated with Windows Intune. All client computers and devices are managed by using Configuration Manager. You have a Wi-Fi network named Wi-Fi1. You create a Wi-Fi profile named Wi-Fi1 and provision the profile for Windows RT 8.1 devices. You create a collection named Collection1 that contains all of the devices that run Windows RT 8.1. You need to ensure that the users who use the Windows RT 8.1 devices can connect to Wi-Fi1 without having to configure the wireless settings manually. The Wi-Fi profile must NOT be used on any other devices. What should you do?
A. Deploy Wi-Fi1 to the All Users collection.
B. Deploy Wi-Fi1 to Collection1.
C. Deploy Wi-Fi1 to the All Mobile Devices collection.
D. Modify the profile properties of Wi-Fi1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You manage a multi-site deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You need to ensure that clients use only their preferred distribution points for downloading content.
Which objects and settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects and settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager primary site named ST1. To all client computers, you deploy the Endpoint Protection client from Configuration Manager and an antimalware policy named Policy1.
You need to ensure that the Endpoint Protection status is updated every 10 minutes in the Monitoring workspace.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-CMClientStatusUpdateSchedule cmdlet.
B. Modify the Endpoint Protection status schedule summarization.
C. Modify the Policy1 Advanced settings.
D. Run the Set-CMClientStatusSettings cmdlet.
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You plan to manage Android devices by using Configuration Manager. You are evaluating whether to use the Exchange Server connector or Windows Intune to manage the Android devices.
You need to identify which management features are available for the Android devices. What should you identify? To answer, select the available management features for the Exchange Server connector and for Windows Intune in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 12
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. You configure Asset Intelligence. You need to request a catalog update for an inventoried software named App1. Which category and family should you configure for App1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your company has a branch office that contains 50 client computers. You deploy Windows Intune to manage the client computers. You need to create a new policy that will change the frequency at which the computers check for updates. Which type of policy template should you use?
A. Windows Intune Agent Settings
B. Windows Intune Center Settings
C. Mobile Device Security Policy
D. Windows Firewall Settings
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that contains the objects shown in the following table.
70-696 dumps
You are creating a new configuration baseline. You need to identify which objects you can use as evaluation conditions within the new configuration baseline. Which three objects should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Object1
B. Object2
C. Object3
D. Object4
E. Object5
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
Your company purchases an application named App1. App1 is installed by using a Windows Installer (MSI) package. App1 will be uninstalled and updated frequently. You need to deploy App1 by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. What is the best type of object to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. an application
B. an automatic deployment rule
C. a package
D. a configuration item
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The Exchange Server connector is deployed. You need to create a collection that includes only devices that are discovered from Microsoft Exchange Server. Which criteria should you add to the collection query rule? To answer, select the appropriate criteria in the answer area.
70-696 dumps

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Pass4itsure experts collected 91 questions and answers for candidates’ preparation. Best Cisco 200-150 dumps DCICN exam download with new discount video training. The Introducing Cisco Data Centerpass4itsure success 210-255 dumps Networking (200-150 DCICN) exam tests data center physical infrastructure, data center networking concepts, and data center storage networking. This 90-minute exam consists of 55-65 questions and covers integration of Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) and context-aware firewall components, as well as Web (Cloud) and Email Security solutions. Pass4itsure provide you latest and relevant Cisco 200-150 questions & answers that help you to get prepared and pass DCICN 200-150 exam in the first attempt. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) course.

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  • Exam Code: 200-150
  • Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
  • Q&As: 91
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QUESTION 1
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
200-150 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
200-150 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
200-150 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
200-150 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program:
#include
#include
#include
int buffer(char *str)
{ char buffer1[10];
strcpy(buffer1, str);
return 1;
}
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{ buffer (argv[1]);
printf(“Executed\n”);
return 1;
}
His program is vulnerable to a attack.
A. SQL injection
B. Denial-of-Service
C. Buffer overflow
D. Cross site scripting
Answer: C
Explanation:
This program takes a user-supplied string and copies it into ‘buffer1’, which can hold up to 10 bytes of data. If a user sends more than 10 bytes, it would result in a buffer overflow.

QUESTION 9
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ——————————- is the complete network
configuration and information toolkit that uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in
order to be very fast and efficient.
200-150 exam Answer: NetRanger
Explanation:
NetRanger is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that includes the following tools: a Ping tool, Trace Route tool, Host Lookup tool, Internet time synchronizer, Whois tool, Finger Unix hosts tool, Host and port scanning tool, check multiple POP3 mail accounts tool, manage dialup connections tool, Quote of the day tool, and monitor Network Settings tool. These tools are integrated in order to use an application interface with full online help. NetRanger is designed for both new and experienced users. This tool is used to help diagnose network problems and to get information about users, hosts, and networks on the Internet or on a user computer network. NetRanger uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.

QUESTION 10
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.
Answer: biometric
Explanation:
A biometric device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic, physical, or behavioral traits. Biometrics is used as a form of identity access management and access control. It is also used to identify individuals in groups that are under surveillance. Biometric characteristics can be divided into two main classes:
1.Physiological: These devices are related to the shape of the body. These are not limited to the fingerprint, face recognition, DNA, hand and palm geometry, and iris recognition, which has largely replaced the retina and odor/scent.
2.Behavioral: These are related to the behavior of a person. They are not limited to the typing rhythm, gait, and voice.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Wireless sniffer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Performance Monitor
200-150 dumps Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Protocol analyzer (also known as a network analyzer, packet analyzer or sniffer, or for particular types of networks, an Ethernet sniffer or wireless sniffer) is computer software or computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network. As data streams flow across the network, the sniffer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes and analyzes its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications.
Answer option D is incorrect. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the
hardware and software components of a server.
Answer option B is incorrect. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of an electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum.

QUESTION 12
In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The router does not have a configuration file.
B. There is a need to set operating parameters.
C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
D. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The system enters ROM monitor mode if the router does not find a valid operating system image, or if a user interrupts the boot sequence. From ROM monitor mode, a user can boot the device or perform diagnostic tests.
Answer option A is incorrect. If the router does not have a configuration file, it will automatically enter Setup mode when the user switches it on. Setup mode creates an initial configuration.
Answer option B is incorrect. Privileged EXEC is used for setting operating parameters.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following protocols is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a network of autonomous systems?
A. IGMP
B. ICMP
C. EGP
D. OSPF
200-150 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
EGP stands for Exterior Gateway Protocol. It is used for exchanging routing information between two gateways in a network of autonomous systems. This protocol depends upon periodic polling with proper acknowledgements to confirm that network connections are up and running, and to request for routing updates. Each router requests its neighbor at an interval of 120 to 480 seconds, for sending the routing table updates. The neighbor host then responds by sending its routing table. EGP-2 is the latest version of EGP.
Answer option B is incorrect. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a maintenance protocol that allows routers and host computers to swap basic control information when data is sent from one computer to another. It is generally considered a part of the IP layer. It allows the computers on a network to share error and status information. An ICMP message, which is encapsulated within an IP datagram, is very useful to troubleshoot the network connectivity and can be routed throughout the Internet.
Answer option A is incorrect. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communication protocol that multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group. However, multicast traffic is sent to a single MAC address but is processed by multiple hosts. It can be effectively used for gaming and showing online videos. IGMP is vulnerable to network attacks.
Answer option D is incorrect. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol that is used in large networks. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) designates OSPF as one of the Interior Gateway Protocols. A host uses OSPF to obtain a change in the routing table and to immediately multicast updated information to all the other hosts in the network.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?
A. Sequence Number
B. Header Length
C. Acknowledgment Number
D. Source Port Address
Answer: D
Explanation:
Source Port Address is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the byte number that the sender of the segment is expecting to receive from the receiver.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a 4-bit field that defines the 4-byte words in the TCP header. The header length can be between 20 and 60 bytes. Therefore, the value of this field can be between 5 and 15.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the number assigned to the first byte of data contained in the segment.
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Pass4itsure Cisco 642-883 Dumps Free Demo Download(49-65)
QUESTION 49
Which high-availability routing feature requires the neighbor router to support the graceful restart capability?
A. BFD
B. NSR
C. NSF
D. MTR
642-883 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On Cisco IOS XR software, NSF minimizes the amount of time a network is unavailable to its users following a route processor (RP) failover. The main objective of NSF is to continue forwarding IP packets and perform a graceful restart following an RP failover. When a router restarts, all routing peers of that device usually detect that the device went down and then came back up. This transition results in what is called a routing flap, which could spread across multiple routing domains. Routing flaps caused by routing restarts create routing instabilities, which are detrimental to the
overall network performance. NSF helps to suppress routing flaps in NSF-aware devices, thus reducing network instability. NSF allows for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being restored following an RP failover. When the NSF feature is configured, peer networking devices do not experience routing flaps. Data traffic is forwarded through intelligent line cards while the standby RP assumes control from the failed active RP during a failover. The ability of line cards to remain up through a failover and to be kept current with the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) on the active RP is key to NSF operation. When the Cisco IOS XR router running IS-IS routing performs an RP failover, the router must perform two tasks to resynchronize its link-state database with its IS IS neighbors. First, it must relearn the available IS-IS neighbors on the network without causing a reset of the neighbor relationship. Second, it must reacquire the contents of the link-state database for the network. The IS-IS NSF feature offers two options when configuring NSF:
·IETF NSF
·Cisco NSF
If neighbor routers on a network segment are NSF aware, meaning that neighbor routers are running a software version that supports the IETF Internet draft for router restartability, they assist an IETF NSF router that is restarting. With IETF NSF, neighbor routers provide adjacency and link-state information to help rebuild the routing information following a failover. In Cisco IOS XR software, Cisco NSF checkpoints (stores persistently) all the state necessary to recover from a restart without requiring any special cooperation from neighboring routers. The state is recovered from the neighboring routers, but only using the standard features of the IS-IS routing protocol. This capability makes Cisco NSF suitable for use in networks in which other routers have not used the IETF standard implementation of NSF

QUESTION 50
Which high-availability mechanism is a detection protocol that is enabled at the interface and at the routing protocol levels?
A. NSF
B. SSO
C. NSR
D. BFD
E. SDR
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
Which OSPF feature allows a router with redundant route processors to maintain its OSPF state and adjacencies across planned and unplanned RP switchovers and does this by checkpointing state information from OSPF on the active RP to the standby RP? This feature does not require the OSPF neighbor to support graceful restart.
A. NSR
B. NSF
C. BFD
D. MTR
E. SDR
642-883 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Continuous Forwarding
An important aspect of high availability is maintenance of traffic forwarding, even in the case of control-plane switchovers. Cisco IOS XR Software has several built-in features that can provide continuous forwarding, including RSP stateful switchover (SSO), Nonstop Forwarding (NSF), Graceful Restart, and NSR.
NSF: Cisco IOS XR Software supports forwarding without traffic loss during a brief outage of the control plane through signaling and routing protocol implementations for Graceful Restart extensions as standardized by the IETF. In addition to standards compliance, this implementation has been compatibility tested with Cisco IOS Software and third-party operating systems.
Graceful Restart: This control-plane mechanism ensures high availability by allowing detection and recovery from failure conditions while preserving NSF services. Graceful Restart is a way to recover from signaling and control-plane failures without affecting the forwarding plane. Cisco IOS XR Software uses this feature and a combination of check pointing, mirroring, RSP redundancy, and other system resiliency features to recover prior to timeout and avoid service downtime as a result of network reconvergence.
NSR: This feature allows for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being refreshed following a processor switchover. NSR maintains protocol sessions and state information across SSO functions for services such as Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) VPN. TCP connections and the routing protocol sessions are migrated from the active RSP to the standby RSP after the RSP failover without letting the peers
know about the failover. The sessions terminate locally on the failed RSP, and the protocols running on the standby RSP reestablish the sessions after the standby RSP goes active, without the peer detecting the change. You can also use NSR with Graceful Restart to protect the routing control plane during switchovers. The Cisco IOS XR Operating System provides system resiliency through a comprehensive set of high-availability features including modularity, process restart, fault handling, continuous forwarding, and upgradability.

QUESTION 52
Refer to the Cisco IOS show command output shown in the exhibit.
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Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the AS path.
B. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the weight.
C. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the local preference.
D. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the MED.
E. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the route origin.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 53
Which two statements regarding OSPFv2 or OSPFv3 authentication are correct? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv2 supports MD5 authentication.
B. OSPFv2 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
C. OSPFv2 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 supports MD5 authentication.
E. OSPFv3 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
F. OSPFv3 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
642-883 pdf 
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 54
What are three common problems that can cause a BGP neighbor state to toggle between the idle state and the active state? (Choose three.)
A. BGP network command misconfiguration
B. route policy misconfiguration
C. AS number misconfiguration
D. route map misconfiguration
E. BGP neighbor peering to wrong IP address
F. IGP routing problem: not able to reach the source IP address of the BGP open packet
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 55
BGP peerings can be secured using which protection mechanism?
A. SHA authentication
B. MD5 authentication
C. SSH
D. SSL
E. AAA
F. digital certificates
642-883 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 56
In an AS with 10 routers running IBGP, how many IBGP sessions will be required to establish fully meshed IBGP peerings?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 50
E. 99
F. 100
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 57
You are implementing OSPF as the IGP using a single OSPF area design. The router memory usage for OSPF is too high. Which two methods can lower the OSPF memory usage? (Choose two.)
A. Enable OSPF synchronization
B. Implement multi-area OSPF
C. Enable OSPF sham links to reduce the number of LSAs
D. Implement route summarization on the ABRs
E. Enable route leaking between Level 1 and Level 2 areas
642-883 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 58
Routes that are received from an IBGP peer will be propagated to which other routers by default?
A. to the EBGP peers only
B. to the IBGP peers only
C. to both EBGP and IBGP peers
D. to no other peers
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 59
What are two consequences of having constant link flaps, resulting in the OSPF neighbor adjacencies going up and down repeatedly? (Choose two.)
A. routes getting into the “Stuck In Active” state
B. constant flooding of LSAs
C. OSPF route dampening to occur
D. many SPF recalculations
E. routing loops may temporarily be introduced into the network
642-883 dumps 
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 60. Which SAN topology offers scalability with the lowest associated cost?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Cascade
D. Core-Edge
Answer: C

QUESTION 61. A SAN architect is asked to implement an infrastructure for a production and a test environment using
Fibre Channel devices. Additionally, the customer would like the Fibre Channel device for production and the device for test to communicate over the IP network to remote hosts, but not to each other. Which protocol should the architect implement?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. SCSI-FCP
642-883 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 62. A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each fabric has two array connections. SCSI Queue Depth for HBAs = 8 and Storage devices = 256 per port. Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four independent LTO II tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the maximum value you should set for SCSI Queue Depth?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

QUESTION 63. A customer has determined a primary and secondary threat radius. The primary threat radius is 100km
and the secondary threat radius is 500km. The company legally needs an exact copy of their data replicated to a remote site. They also want a replica outside of the secondary threat radius. What should they do?
A. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
B. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
C. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and synchronously replicate their data to a second facility 500 km away.
D. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and asynchronously replicate their data to a second facility 500 km away.
642-883 vce Answer: D

QUESTION 64. You are troubleshooting a communication problem between a host and a storage array.  Both nodes are seen by the switch. The host can talk to the array port but has not assigned a target ID to it. What is the most likely current scenario?
A. There have been no logins
B. Both nodes have completed Fabric Logins but no Port or Process Logins
C. Both nodes have completed Fabric and Port Logins but no Process Login
D. Both nodes have completed Fabric, Port, and Process Login, there is some other problem.
Answer: C

QUESTION 65. A customer is installing a Fibre Channel storage area network for a small test and development lab. The lab contains two small Windows servers and a single ten disk storage subsystem. The customer desires to deploy a fully redundant SAN for this environment with minimal cost. What is necessary to meet the customer’s requirement for full redundancy of the SAN?
A. one director class fabric switch
B. two departmental fabric switches
C. Ethernet connectivity to each component in the SAN
D. at least one HBA in each server being attached to the SAN
642-883 exam Answer: B

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400-101 dumps
QUESTION 420
Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true?(Choose two)
A. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF,it has a default metric of 110.
B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP,it has a default metric of 1.
C. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF,it has a default metric of 1.
D. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS,it has a default metric of 115.
E. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2,it has a default metric of 20.
400-101 exam
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 421
Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
QUESTION 422
Refer to the exhibit.
You are configuring Router 1 and Routef2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.
Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Routei’2 to establish the tuimel?
(choose two)

400-101 dumps
A. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class RltoR2.
B. An IP address must be confiaured on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.
C. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.
D. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.
400-101 dumps
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 423
Drag each routing protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 424
Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the priority order in which the attributes are preferred
when determining the best path on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 425
Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 426
Refer to the Exhibit.
400-101 dumps
If R1 uses EIGRP to learn route 192.168.10.0/24 from R2. Which interface on R1 uses split horizon for route 192.168.10.0/24?
A. F a0/1
B. F a0/0
C. Se0/0
D. Se1/0
400-101 pdf
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 427
Which two Cisco IOS AAA features are available with the local database? (Choose two.)
A. command authorization
B. network access authorization
C. network accounting
D. network access authentication
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 428
Which two options are two characteristics of the HSRPv6 protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.0fff.
B. It uses UDP port number 2029.
C. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.ffff.
D. It uses UDP port number 2920.
E. If a link local IPv6 address is used, it must have a prefix.
400-101 vce
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 429
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 430
Which two statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose two.)
A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.
B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.
C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.
D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.
E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.
400-101 exam
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 431
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 432
Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?
A. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point.
B. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface can be the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point or the interface that is used to reach the source.
C. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the source.
D. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks.
400-101 dumps
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 433:
Which of the following are NOT examples of network cables?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial
C. Fiber optic
D. Infrared
Answer: D
QUESTION 434:
How does twisted pair attempt to reduce crosstalk?
A. Larger gauge wire
B. Smaller gauge wire
C. Fewer twists per linear foot
D. More twists per linear foot
400-101 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 435:
Which of the following is not a potential source of EMI?
A. Computers
B. Electrical appliances
C. Radio frequencies
D. Lighting
Answer:
QUESTION 436:
How does twisted pair attempt to reduce crosstalk?
A. Larger gauge wire
B. Smaller gauge wire
C. Fewer twists per linear foot
D. More twists per linear foot
400-101 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 437:
What is the advantage of twisted pair wire over other cabling options?
A. Cost
B. Bandwidth
C. Attenuation
D. EMI immunity
Answer:
QUESTION 438:
When a twisted pair wire has a higher gauge number, it is:
A. Thicker.
B. Thinner.
C. More insulated.
D. Less insulated
400-101 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 439:
Which gauge wire is typically used as backbone cable?
A. 22 AWG
B. 24 AWG
C. 26 AWG
D. 30 AWG
Answer: A
QUESTION 440:
Which of the following types of twisted pair cabling can support bandwidths of up
to 100 Mbps?
A. Category 2
B. Category 3
C. Category 4
D. Category 5
400-101 dumps Answer:
QUESTION 441:
Which type of twisted pair cable is commonly used in a token ring network?
A. Category 1
B. Category 2
C. Category 3
D. Category 4
Answer:
QUESTION 442:
How many twisted pairs are contained in a 10BaseT cable?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
400-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 443:
Coaxial cable consists of:
A. A core, cladding, and sheath.
B. Copper wires sheathed in PVC.
C. Twisted copper wires sheathed in metal.
D. A copper conductor surrounded by at least three layers of insulation.
Answer: D
QUESTION 444:
Coaxial cable is able to carry data at high speeds without danger of interference.
This is possible because coaxial cable has:
A. An opaque plastic coating.
B. A PVC jacket over the core.
C. A shield surrounding the core.
D. Higher-gauge wire used than that found in twisted pair.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 445:
Cheapernet, or thinnet, is:
A. Equivalent to cable TV coax.
B. Used to provide broadband backbone.
C. Used to provide a bus LAN that does not use drop cables.
D. Used to provide a bus LAN with T connectors.
Answer:
QUESTION 446:
Which is an advantage of fiber optic over other transmission media?
A. Cost
B. Ease of installation
C. Ease of management
D. Immunity to signal interference
400-101 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 447:
Which of the following is NOT part of a fiber optic cable?
A. Highly refractive cladding
B. Opaque plastic sheath
C. Glass or plastic core
D. Copper shielding
Answer: D
QUESTION 448:
The glass core of a fiber optic cable carries data with what type of signal?
A. Electrical
B. Light pulses
C. Radio waves
D. Microwaves
400-101 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 449:
A PC that uses a cordless mouse is an example of which type of transmission media?
A. Infrared
B. Optical fiber

C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency
Answer:
QUESTION 450:
With infrared transmission, the sending and receiving devices must typically reside
in the same room because:
A. Radiation is a concern.
B. The signal can usually carry only up to 5 feet.
C. Obstacles such as walls would block the signal.
D. The beam is so diffuse that too many devices could be affected.
400-101 vce Answer:
QUESTION 451:
Which of the following can interfere with an infrared transmission?
A. Too much light
B. EMI
C. RFI
D. Crosstalk
Answer: A
QUESTION 452:
Which of the following is an advantage to short-range wireless transmission?
A. It can be used where cable cannot be routed.
B. It supports higher bandwidths than cable-based transmission.
C. It is a widely accepted standard.
D. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum is fully interoperable with Frequency Hopping
Spread Spectrum devices.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 453:
A wireless device uses Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS). Which of the
following devices can it communicate with?
A. Any other wireless device

B. Only another device using FHSS
C. Only a device using Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
D. Both a device using FHSS and a device using DSSS)
Answer:
QUESTION 454:
What type of signal is used to send short-range wireless transmissions?
A. Light
B. Low-frequency radio
C. Microwave
D. Electromagnetic
400-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 455:
In a satellite transmission, the satellite functions as a:
A. Repeater.
B. Transmission medium
C. Transponder.
D. Landline interface.
Answer:
QUESTION 456:
One disadvantage of satellite transmission is:
A. High cost.
B. Low data rate.
C. Requires line of sight.
D. EMI sensitivity.
400-101 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 457:
A form of free space transmission that has a range of up to 100 km is:
A. Infrared.
B. Microwave.
C. Satellite.

D. Radio frequency.
Answer: B
QUESTION 458:
Which organization is the predominant force for defining LAN standards?
A. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
C. Bell Communications Research (BellCore)
D. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
400-101 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 459:
Which standards organization is responsible for defining the OSI reference model?
A. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
C. Bell Communications Research (BellCore)
D. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
Answer:
QUESTION 460:
One purpose of LAN standards is to:
A. Limit the number of manufacturers in the LAN market.
B. Simplify the design of network servers.
C. Give LAN buyers lower cost and interoperability.
D. Reduce the need for bridges and routers.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 461:
Which term describes the IEEE standard for 10 Mbps ethernet over twisted pair?
A. Cheapernet
B. 10BaseE
C. 10BaseT
D. 802.3bis

Answer:
QUESTION 462:
Which standard governs the development of Switched Multimegabit Data Service
(SMDS)?
A. 802.4
B. 802.6
C. 802.8
D. 802.11
400-101 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 463:
Which layers of the OSI model are governed by IEEE 802.x standards?
A. All layers
B. Layers 5 through 7
C. Layers 1 and 2
D. Layers 3 and 4
Answer:
QUESTION 464:
Which standard defines the procedures for token passing over fiber optic cable?
A. 802.4
B. 802.6
C. 802.8
D. 802.11
400-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 465:
Which standard defines both ad hoc mode and infrastructure mode for wireless
networks?
A. 802.4
B. 802.6
C. 802.8
D. 802.11b

Answer: D
QUESTION 466:
Which standard is responsible for defining the operation of 100VB-AnyLAN?
A. 802.10
B. 802.12
C. 802.14
D. 802.16
400-101 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 467:
Which of the following best describes the key to SNA LU6.2 and PU2.1?
A. All communications are processed by a host mainframe.
B. Personal computers on a LAN can emulate terminals.
C. All computers on the network communicate as peers.
D. They support IEEE 802.3 (ethernet) connections.
Answer:
QUESTION 468:
In SNA, LUs define how services can interact. The significance of LU6.2 is that it:
A. Allows processors on the network to communicate as peers.
B. Formalizes the master-slave relationship between the mainframe and other network processors.
C. Increases the amount of network control exercised by the mainframe.
D. Allows network devices to communicate through the host mainframe.
400-101 exam Answer:
QUESTION 469:
Which layers of the OSI model are considered logical layers in the SNA protocol
stack?
A. Layers 1, 2 and 3
B. Layers 4, 5 and 6
C. Layers 5, 6 and 7
D. Layer 7 only

Answer: B
QUESTION 470:
The OSI reference model Layer 3 (network layer) provides, in part, which of the following?
A. Electrical characteristics of transmitted signals
B. Link access management protocols
C. Network routing
D. Interconnectivity between LANs
400-101 dumps Answer:
QUESTION 471:
The OSI reference model Layer 2 (data link layer) defines, in part, which of the
following?
A. Electrical characteristics of transmitted signals
B. Link access management protocols
C. Network addressing schemes
D. Interconnectivity between LANs
Answer:
QUESTION 472:
In TCP/IP, the process layer includes protocols that:
A. Support file transfers.
B. Ensure reliability of data transfer.
C. Handles data exchange between hosts.
D. Allow transfer of data across gateways.
400-101 exam Answer:

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210-065 dump
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dump
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The
numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
A new Cisco DX650 is not registering in the Cisco Communications Manager running version 9.1.2. The latest device
package and firmware was uploaded on all Cisco Communications Manager servers in the cluster. What is most likely
the cause of this issue?
A. A cluster-wide reboot is needed to enable the functionality.
B. You must restart the TFTP server.
C. The firmware in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
D. The software version in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
210-065 dump Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When placing a Multiway call through a Cisco TelePresence Conductor, which IP address on the Conductor should the
call be routed to?
A. Rendezvous IP address
B. Ad hoc IP address
C. Scheduled conference IP address
D. Management IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.

C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
The command xCommand Security FIPSMode Activate is issued to a Cisco TelePresence C-Series codec. Management wants to reverse the effects of this command. Which two methods could be used for this purpose? (Choose two.)
A. From the touch screen, disable FIPS mode in the Administrator Settings menu.
B. From the touch screen, perform a factory reset from the Administrator Settings menu.
C. From the touch screen, disable all security settings from the Administrator Settings menu.
D. Use SSH to connect to the system and enter the xCommand Security FIPSMode Deactivate command.
E. Use Telnet to connect to the system and enter the xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Init command.
F. Use SSH to connect to the system and enter the xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Confirm: Yes command.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 24
Which codec represents video that is supported by Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. H.263
B. H.323
C. H.264
D. H.262
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dump
An H.323 endpoint that is registered to Cisco VCS Control is not able to make B2B calls. Calls to other internal endpoints are working fine. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The Conductor H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
B. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
C. The Production CUCM H.323 zone is set to andquot;Off.andquot;
D. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is in a andquot;Failedandquot; state.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dump
Which system does this web user interface refer to?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Video Communications Server

C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
210-065 dump Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which all-in-one dual-screen solution can be used for an average meeting room without the need for external monitors?
A. MX700
B. MX300G2
C. EX90
D. SX80
E. TX9000
F. MX200G2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dump
Users in a Cisco TelePresence room report audio and video quality issues. You have been asked to troubleshoot the issue. You log in to the endpoint GUI and check telephony settings. Which option would you recommend to resolve the issue?
A. Audio/video quality issues are generally due to low bandwidth. Contact your carrier to increase the bandwidth.
B. andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
C. andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; is not correct. Configure the correct value via codec GUI.
D. DSCP values are correct. Check the QoS configuration on the router.
E. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct. Configure the correct value in codec GUI.
F. The andquot;DSCP For TelePresenceandquot; and andquot;DSCP For Audioandquot; values are not correct.
 Configure the correct value in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 29
You are the HR Professional for your organization and you’ve identified a risk event. The risk event can be mitigated by purchasing an insurance to protect the organization. The purchase of the insurance policy is what type of risk response?
A. Avoidance
B. Transference
C. Acceptance
D. Sharing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.Transference doesn’t make the risk go away, but it transfers the risk to a third party, usually for a fee. Purchasing insurance is an example of transference. Transference is a strategy to mitigate negative risks or threats. In this strategy, consequences and the ownership of a risk is transferred to a third party. This strategy does not eliminate the risk but transfers responsibility of managing the risk to another party. Insurance is an example of transference.
References:
QUESTION 30
Stress is often a significant issue in workplaces. Author Ravi Tangri asserts that stress costs organizations up to $300 billion per year. Which one of the following stresses is the largest contributor to organizational cost of waste?
A. Workplace accidents
B. Turnover
C. Absenteeism
D. Drug plan costs
210-065 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994, what is the minimum number of days an employee must be gone from their position to be offered COBRA-like health coverage?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 120 days
D. 240 days
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer option A is correct.
For leave greater than 30 days and less than 240 days, the employer must offer COBRA-like health coverage at the request of the employee. Answer option B is incorrect. The COBRA-like health coverage begins on day 30, not 60. Answer option C is incorrect. The COBRA-like health coverage begins on day 30, not 120. Answer option D is incorrect. The COBRA-like health coverage begins on day 30, not 240. 240 days is actually the maximum days the employee is eligible for coverage.
References:

QUESTION 32
An organization has over 5,000 employees who are members of a union. The employees, however, are no longer happy with the union’s performance and they would like to decertify the union from their representation. Who will decertify the union in this instance?
A. The union official if fifty percent of the employees sign off on the decertification
B. The National Labor Relations Board
C. Management of the employees
D. The employees
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 33
You are the HR Professional for your organization and you’ve identified a risk event. The risk event can be mitigated by purchasing an insurance to protect the organization. You’ve also identified that the probability of the risk event is only 20 percent. If management doesn’t want to purchase the insurance to mitigate the risk event, what other choice do they have to respond to the event by using an out-of- pocket payment if the event actually occurs?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Sharing
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.Acceptance is a risk response that accepts the event with the understanding that if the event happens, the organization will deal with the ramifications and impact at the time of the event. Out-of-pocket payments are an example of acceptance. Acceptance response is a part of the Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that
pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities.
References:

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QUESTION: 1
Your organization is performing a Portfolio Analysis in Project Server 2013. You want to create a consolidated Portfolio Analysis optimization based on Cost and Resource data, which will be part of the project information in Project Server 2013. You plan to provide different simulations to your organization by using those parameters and returning the best prioritization. This organization has two different unit directors, who have the final decision on the consolidated Portfolio Analysis results. You need to provide the ability for your unit directors to modify the final portfolio selection. Which element should you use?
A. Resource Requirements
B. Project/Proposal Priority
C. Field Cost Constraint
D. Project Original Start
E. Field Force In/Out
74-344 exam Answer: E
QUESTION: 2
You are a project manager in an organization that uses Project Server 2013. All project managers have permission to edit all projects. You edit a project in Project Web App (PWA), make changes, publish the project, and close your browser. A project manager calls you to report they are unable to open your project for edit in PWA. You need to
resolve this issue. What should you do?
A. Advise the project manager to open the project in Project Professional 2013.
B. Open Project Professional 2013 and use the Clean Up Cache button.
C. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Check in My Projects button.
D. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Project Permissions button.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
Your organization is a multinational corporation that uses Project Online to plan and control the projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can participate in strategic projects. The Research and Development (R&D) department has been struggling to gather and materialize the new ideas. The
Project Management Office (PMO) has the necessary templates and Enterprise Project Types (EPTs) to start a formal process for any new product and to adhere to the general guidelines. However, the R&D group does not want to register all of their ideas since many are related to improvements and few of them could be materialized
 into projects. You need to generate a solution that allows R&D to gather their ideas and facilitate the materialization into Enterprise Projects. What should you do?
A. Create a new EPT for the SharePoint Task List and name it R&D New Idea.
B. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a Custom SharePoint Item List for ideation and requests with custom fields that easily match with Project custom fields when using the Add SharePoint Sites command in Project Center.
C. Create a new EPT for Enterprise Projects and name it R&D New Idea.
D. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a custom list for ideation and match list columns with Project custom fields when using the Create Projects command in the SharePoint Item List.
74-344 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
Your organization uses Project Online for project portfolio selection. The business drivers and priorities are set, as are the main constraints to identify the efficient frontier. The company has been collecting business cases for new proposals in which many projects may solve the same business need. For example, the selection for a Customer Relationship Management system has six different proposals, whereas only one is necessary to fulfill the business need. You need to guarantee that the analysis will produce the most viable proposal in terms of cost and resources and that no repetitive efforts exist in the portfolio selection. What should you do?
A. Create a mutual exclusion dependency among all these projects.
B. Create a mutual inclusion dependency among all these projects.
C. Exclude these projects from the Portfolio Analysis to prevent a deviation from the main goal.
D. Exclude the related projects from the portfolio after the cost analysis with the Force in/out option.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
You are a program manager for an organization that uses Project Server 2013. You are responsible for implementing a data warehouse that compiles relational data from many business areas. Your project managers need to be able to manage the implementation for a business area as separate projects, while still recognizing the dependencies at a program level. You need to maintain ownership and authority of key
program dates at the program level. What should you do?

A. Create one project file for all project managers that includes the program-level tasks and each sub-project’s tasks. Require each area project manager to share the file, and add their dependencies within their own tasks.
B. Create and publish a master project file with general durations for each business area sub-project, and have the area project manager reconcile the dates in their own project manually each week.
C. Have the project managers create, save, and publish sub-projects for each area. Then insert them into a program-level project, define dependencies, and save and publish the program-level project to the server.
D. Create a master project and insert your projects, but never publish the file on the server.
74-344 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
You are a program manager for a company that uses Project Server 2013 and Project Professional 2013. You manage the implementation of a data warehouse. You have set up your program master project with subprojects for each implementation area. You need to make edits to the dependencies between projects. What are two possible ways
to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. View the subproject in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in the predecessor’s/successor’s column.
B. Open the program-level project from Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013. Highlight the tasks you wish to link for a dependency with the control key. Then click the link button on the tool bar.
C. Open the program-level project and the subproject from the Project Web App (PWA) and save them to your local machine. Then add your predecessor’s/successor’s column in either file.
D. Open each of the required subprojects from the Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013 and create the link in the predecessor’s/successor’s column to the other projects using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
E. View the program-level project in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in the predecessor’s/ successor’s column using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: 070-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230

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QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog

070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog
070-463 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
070-463 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining
070-463 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum team work?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node?
A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
070-463 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customised applications to communicate with the workflow engine and

A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
Answer: B
QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customised applications to communicate with the workflow engine and

QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process
070-463 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy
Answer: B
QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component
Answer: B
QUESTION 41
B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 82 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 83 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an “I” in the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is problematic.
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 84 Check Point’s NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection
B. Allowing IP fragmentation
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
70-742 dumps Answer: D, E

QUESTION NO: 85 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host? Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing. B.
After the outbound kernel, and before routing. C.
After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 86
Which of these options is NOT a principal activity of the Incident Management process?
A. Classification
B. Prioritisation
C. Escalation
D. Negotiation
70-742 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
Reducing the impact of disruptions to IT services on the business, improving staff utilisation and resolution times are benefits of which process?
A. Problem Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
If you were providing a list of key performance indicators for the Incident Management process, which of these options would you include?
A. Cost per Incident/Service Request
B. Frequency of technical Incidents
C. Incidents submitted by individual users
D. Percentage of Incidents resolved out-of-hours
70-742 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 89
Which statement most accurately describes typical key performance indicators for the Incident Management process?
A. Major Incidents failing to meet SLA; Incidents failing to match Known Errors; Cost per Problem
B. Total number of Incidents; total number of Service Requests; number of Incidents failing to meet the SLA
C. First Contact Resolutions; Second Level Resolutions; Workarounds
D. Cost per Incident; cost per Service Request; cost per Major Incident
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 90
What metrics would you NOT expect to come from the Incident Management process?
A. Incidents outstanding by resolver group
B. Number of Incidents closed on the first call
C. Number of escalations logged in the Incident lifecycle
D. Percentage of Incidents resolved out-of-hours
70-742 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 91
If you were establishing a Problem Management process in your organization, which of the following would be one of your primary objectives?
A. To eliminate all Problems over time
B. To prevent Incidents developing into Problems
C. To eliminate the occurrence of all user-related Problems
D. To minimise the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
Which of these options best describes a reactive objective of Problem Management?
A. To minimise the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
B. To prevent the occurrence of Incidents
C. To prevent the recurrence of Incidents
D. To determine the root cause of Incidents and initiate corrective actions
70-742 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
Which statement best describes the difference between Reactive Problem Management and Proactive Problem Management?
A. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with solving problems in response to Known Errors; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with identifying quick fixes
B. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with solving problems in response to one or more Incidents; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with identifying underlying Problems
C. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with analysing and trending Incident records; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with solving problems in response to one or more Incidents
D. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with eliminating root causes; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with identifying future business needs
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
Which of the following is a Problem Management activity?
A. Reactive support
B. Error Control
C. SLA analysis
D. First contact resolution
70-742 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
Which of these options is NOT a benefit of the Problem Management process?
A. It improves productivity of the business and IT
B. It removes the need for SLAs
C. It reduces the time to resolve Incidents
D. It increases first contact resolutions
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of these options is a key performance indicator for Problem Management?
A. The time taken to resolve Problems by 2nd and 3rd level support
B. The number of Problems escalated by the Service Desk
C. The number of repeat Problems within a given period
D. A reduction in business impact caused by Problems
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 97
Which of these options would be considered a Problem Management KPI?
A. Service Desk SLAs being met
B. Number of escalations
C. Increased Incident resolution
D. Reduced numbers of Incidents
Answer: D

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