[New Version From Google Drive] New Study Material for Most Hottest Microsoft Server Infrastructure 70-414 Dumps Exam Q&A Latest Version PDF&VCE with Youtube Training

This Microsoft 70-414 dumps is part two of a series of two exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise scaled, highly virtualized environment. Pass4itsure new study material for most hottest Microsoft Server Infrastructure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-414.html dumps exam q&a latest version pdf&vce with Youtube training.

Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 243

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70-414 dumps

4.You need to recommend a solution that meets the notification requirements.
Which System Center 2012 components should you include in the recommendation?
A. Service Manager, Orchestrator and App Controller
B. Configuration Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
C. App Controller, Configuration Manager and Operations Manager
D. Operations Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
70-414 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

5.You are evaluating the deployment of a multi-site Hyper-V failover cluster in the Miami office and the
Seattle office to host App2. You need to identify which changes must be made to support the use of the
multi-site cluster.
Which changes should you identify?
A. Configure all of the virtual machines to use dynamic memory. Implement Distributed File System (DFS)
Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated folder.

B. Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated
folder. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices.
C. Purchase a storage solution that replicates the virtual machines. Configure all of the virtual machines
to use dynamic memory.
D. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices. Purchase a storage solution that
replicates the virtual machines.
Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

6.You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application
requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
70-414 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

7.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in
the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security
requirements.
Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an SMB share.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
8.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in
the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security
requirements.
Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an NFS share.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

70-414 pdf Answer: B
9.In adatum.com, you install and configure a server that has the Active Directory Federation Services
server role and all of the AD FS role services installed. You need to recommend which AD FS
configurations must be performed m adatum.com to meet the security requirements.
Which configurations should you recommend before creating a trust policy?
A. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the
token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
B. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the
server authentication certificate from Trey Research.
C. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the server
authentication certificate from Trey Research.
D. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the
token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

70-414 dumps

10.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used
in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the
security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
70-414 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

11.You are configuring the Certification Authority role service. From the Certification Authority console,
you enable logging. You need to ensure that configuration changes to the certification authority (CA) are
logged.
Which audit policy should you configure?

A. Audit policy change
B. Audit privilege use
C. Audit system events
D. Audit object access
Answer: D
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

12.You have a service template to deploy App1. You are evaluating the use of Network Load Balancing
(NLB) for the front-end servers used by App1. You need to recommend which component must be added

to the service template.
What should you recommend?
A. Guest OS profile
B. A host profile
C. A capability profile
D. A VIP template
70-414 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

38 / 113
13.You need to recommend a software update solution that meets the technical requirements.
What should you recommend deploying to each branch office?
A. An endpoint protection point
B. A distribution point
C. A management point
D. An enrollment proxy point

Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

14.What is the minimum number of certificate servers you need to deploy?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
70-414 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

Topic 5, Mix Questions
1.Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012.Server1
and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are part of a host group named Group1 in
Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Server1 and Server2 have identical
hardware, software, and settings. You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on
a host exceeds 65 percent.
The current load on the servers is shown following table.

70-414 dumps

You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VM8.VM8 has a CPU utilization of 20 percent. You
discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. You need to ensure
that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.
What should you modify from the DynamicOptimizationconfiguration?
A. The Host Reserve threshold
B. The Power Optimization threshold
C. The Aggressiveness level
D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold
Answer: C
2.Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers
connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 Hyper-V hosts in a failover cluster. The
Hyper-V hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs).
You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements:
– The virtual machines must support live migration.
– The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers.
Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV)
B. An NFS share
C. Storage pools
D. SMB 3.0 shares
70-414 pdf Answer: C, D
3.Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2.The two data centers are
connected by using a low-latency high-speed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts

that run Windows Server 2012.All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data
center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts. You need to
recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper-V host fails.
– Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2
B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1
C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers
D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
Answer: C

Passing this Pass4itsure 70-414 dumps validates a candidate’s ability to the plan, configure, and manage the Windows Server 2012 services, such as identity and access, high availability, and the server infrastructure. Passing this exam along with the other exam confirms that a candidate has the https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-414.html  dumps skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying, and maintaining services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

 

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QUESTION 1
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which syslog severity level is level number 7? 210-260 dumps
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? 210-260 pdf (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network? 210-260 dumps
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 12
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? 210-260 pdf (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNSD. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. 210-260 dumps What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
When running a “Run Tag Criteria” server task and the box for “Reset manually tagged and excluded systems” box is checked, this would:
A. Include both systems that match and don’t match.
B. Remove the tag on systems that do match the criteria.
C. Add the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
D. Remove the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
To remove computers from ePO using the Active Directory Synchronization task, it is required that the account has access to the:
A. Deleted computers
B. Deleted Objects container
C. Organizational Unit
D. Active Directory.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What option can be configured in the On-Access General Policy that is not an option in the local VirusScan console?
A. Boot sectors
B. Floppy during shutdown
C. Enable on-access scanning at system startup
D. Enable on-access scanning when the policy is enforced
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
To ensure that a Rogue System Detection Sensor is not installed on a managed system, what action needs to be performed? MC1-001 pdf
A. Add the system to the Exception List
B. Add the system to the Blacklist
C. Add the system as Ignored
D. Add the system as Managed
Correct Answer: B
MC1-001 dumps
QUESTION 5              MC1-001 dumps
When configuring Product Deployment Client Tasks, the “Enable randomization” setting should be activated when managed client nodes exceed.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 750
D. 1000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following should be the primary consideration when deploying Agent Handlers?
A. Database increasing in size
B. Log files increasing in size
C. Memory and resource allocation
D. High speed and low latency connection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When backing up an ePO server, which of the following security keys is required to restore agent server communication?
A. Local Master Repository Communication
B. Agent Server Secure Communication
C. Legacy Agent Server Communication
D. McAfee SIA Repository Communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the correct order for creating a query?
A. Configure Chart, choose Columns, select Result Type, apply Filter
B. Select Result Type, choose Columns, configure Chart, apply Filter
C. Configure Chart, select Result Type, choose Columns, apply Filter
D. Select Result Type, configure Chart, choose Columns, apply Filter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When a policy is deleted, all systems for which it is currently applied to will inherit which policy? MC1-001 dumps
A. McAfee Default
B. Parent Group
C. My Default
D. Global Root
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following server services is responsible for communication with the McAfee Agent?
A. Apache
B. Tomcat
C. SQL
D. Event Parser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a core architecture component of ePO?
A. Internet Explorer
B. Event Parser
C. Active Directory
D. Agent Handler
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Why would a managed system appear in the Lost & Found group? MC1-001 pdf
A. No matching criteria were found
B. Matched sorting criteria were found
C. Inactive Agent
D. Rogue Agent
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which areas of the console allow the resetting of inheritance? (Choose three)
A. Assigned Policies
B. Policy Catalog
C. Group Details
D. Systems
E. Client Tasks
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 14
Which settings are preserved when installing VirusScan on a computer that had a previous version installed? (Choose three)
A. Help files
B. Scanning Engine
C. Detection definition file
D. Log file names and locations
E. Registry Keys containing product versions
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
After a query has been completed, additional actions can be taken on the:
A. Lower right hand comer of page
B. Lower left hand corner of page
C. Upper right hand corner of page
D. Upper left hand corner of page
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
When creating a Run Query Server Task, which sub-actions can be selected to allow the system to automatically act upon the results of a query? (Choose three) MC1-001 dumps
A. Apply tag
B. Delete sensor
C. Create group
D. Export to file
E. Send snmp trap
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 1
You have a Dynamics CHM organization that uses folder tracking. You have a folder named Customers that is currently being tracked- Customers contains a folder for The main contact named Contact1.
A new email message from Contact1 is delivered to your Inbox. You need to identity what will occur when you move the message to the Customer1 folder.
What should you identify?
A. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Customer1 and to Contact1
B. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Contact1 only.
C. An email activity will be created m CRM that has a connection To Customer1 only.
D. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field set to Contact1
E. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field Set to Customer1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a Dynamic CRM organization that has more than 700 active goals. At the end of each year, your company reevaluates each goal. You need to identify which value of the goals must be configured manually. MB2-715 pdf
Which value should you identity?
A. Actual
B. target
C. Rollup Query – Actual
D. In-Progress
E. Rollup Query – In Process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a Dynamics CRM organization that uses server-side synchronization to process email. A manager requests that you create the mailbox records defined as shown in the following table. MB2-715 dumps
MB2-715 dumps
You need to identify which record will fail to be created.
Which record should you identify?
A. User2
B. User3
C. User1
D. User4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a recalled product that should no longer be sold.
You need to remove the Product from the available list of products and to prevent any sales from being processed for the product.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. MB2-715 dumps
A. Remove the product from the family hierarchy.
B. Modify the open opportunities.
C. Update the price list.
D. Retire the product.
E. Modify the validity date of the product.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
You plan to export sales data that will be used in the annual report of your company. You need to provide a copy of some of the sales data to the company stakeholders. Which format can you use to export the data?
A. Adobe PDF
B. Microsoft Word
C. MicrosoftPowerPoint
D. Microsoft Visio
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You company employs consultants who bill customers for their time. You sales team is responsible for selling the consultants time, in addition to selling product licenses. You need to provide the sales team with the ability to create opportunities , quotes, and invoices for the consultant’s time. .
What should you create first? MB2-715 pdf
A. a product family
B. a price list
C. a product bundle
D. a unit group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a quote named Quote1 that was activated and presented to a customer You plan to take a long leave of absence. In your absence, a user named User2 will take ownership of Quo: You need to transfer ownership of Quote1 to User2.
What should you do?
A. Click Assign and select User2
B. Click Close and instruct User2 to create a new quote.
C. Click Share and select User2
D. Click Email a Link and select User2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have an opportunity record.
When you attempt to increase the Estimate Revenue field, you discover that the field is locked.
You need to identify a possible cause of the issue. MB2-715 dumps
What should you identify?
A. The products in the opportunity are write-in products.
B. The estimated revenue exceeds the budget amount.
C. The opportunity contains conflicting currencies.
D. The method of revenue is system-generated.
Correct Answer: D

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[New Version] Latest Cisco 300-210 Dumps PDF Practice Questions And Youtube Free Demo

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QUESTION 1
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements describe effects of the DoNothing option within the untrusted network policy on aCisco AnyConnect profile? (Choose two.)
A. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of an untrusted network.
B. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of a trusted network.
C. The always-on feature is enabled.
D. The always-on feature is disabled.
E. The client does not automatically initiate any VPN connection.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-210
The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. 300-210 Which action will allow the session to establish correctly?
A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask.
B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched.
C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters.
D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which transform set is contained in the IKEv2 default proposal?
A. aes-cbc-192, sha256, group 14
B. 3des, md5, group 7
C. 3des, sha1, group 1
D. aes-cbc-128, sha, group 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.)
A. CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD
B. CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD
C. CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME
D. CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the IPsec PSK of a tunnel group in cleartext?
A. more system:running-config
B. show running-config crypto
C. show running-config tunnel-group
D. show running-config tunnel-group-map
E. clear config tunnel-group
F. show ipsec policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.) 300-210
A. IKEv1
B. IKEv2
C. SSL client
D. SSL clientless
E. ESP
F. L2TP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server.
Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?
A. HTTPS
B. NetBIOS
C. CIFS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose three.)
A. SAML
B. HTTP POST
C. HTTP Basic
D. NTLM
E. Kerberos
F. OAuth 2.0
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
The following configuration steps have been completeD.
WebVPN was enabled on the ASA outside interface.
SSL VPN client software was loaded to the ASA.
A DHCP scope was configured and applied to a WebVPN Tunnel Group.
What additional step is required if the client software fails to load when connecting to the ASA SSL page?
A. The SSL client must be loaded to the client by an ASA administrator
B. The SSL client must be downloaded to the client via FTP
C. The SSL VPN client must be enabled on the ASA after loading
D. The SSL client must be enabled on the client machine before loading
Correct Answer: C

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[New Version] 2017 Latest Microsoft 70-417 Exam Questions Youtube Free Demo

The best Microsoft 70-417 exam practice questions and answers MCSA Windows Server 2012 Windows Server 2012 test in their very first attempts. Our success rates in the past two years have been absolutely impressive, thanks to 70-417 exam our happy customers who are now able to propel their careers in the fast lane.

QUESTION 1
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
70-417 exam
QUESTION 2                   70-417 exam
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage spaces:
*Data
*Users
*Backups
*Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space.

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. 70-417 exam
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of the following.

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso .com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.psl script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the 70-417 exam following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy – ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.

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What’s New with Real Cisco 200-125 Exam Q&As Updated 2017

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 637 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 17, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html

200-125 exam

Lead4pass Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-125 Exam Q&As 

QUESTION 33
A BlackBerry device is missing the Enterprise Activation icon and Enterprise Activation is not present usnder Options>Advanced Options. Which if the following is the cause?(Choose one)
A. An activation password has not been set for the BlackBerry device user
B. Services have not been started on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The BlackBerry device is already active on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The user account has ben been added to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. The BlackBerry device is not provisioined for the Enterprise service class by the wireless service provider

Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 34
Which two of the following will clear the BlackBerry device calendar database for a user who is connecting to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose two)
A. Using Advance Options in the BalckBerry Desktop Manager backup and restore tool
B. Deleting the Desktop[CICAL] service book
C. Performing a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
D. Accessing Calendar?Options and typing RSET
E. Synchronizing with the email client

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 35
A BlackBerry device user recently had the BlackBerry Desktop Software updated and since doing so, the ability to type and read in French is no longer available on the BlackBerry device. Which two of the following processes should the user perform to restore French language support? (Choose two)
A. Locate the French Language pack on the wireless service provider website and install using the application loader tool
B. Locate the French language pack on the BlackBerry.com website and install using the application loader tool
C. Locate the current BlackBerry Device Software version on the servcie provider website and run the application loader tool and install the Locate the current BlackBerry Device Software version on the service provider website and run the application loaer tool to install the language component
D. Locate the current BlackBerry Devie Software version on the BlackBerry.com website and run the application loader tool to install the language component
E. Verify the installed version of BlackBerry Device Software is the most current and check the list of installed applications for the language pack

Correct Answer: CE

 

 

QUESTION 36
By default, which three of the following options will delete all the user data on a BlackBerry device? (Choose three)
A. Enter incorrect password 10 times
B. Use the Wipe command in BlackBerry Device Manager
C. Choose Wipe Handheld from general options in security settings
D. Uninstall any application from the Application Permissions menu
E. Use the application loader tool to install new BlackBerry device software

Correct Answer: ACE

 

 

QUESTION 37
A BlackBerry device user is moving to a different BlackBerry Domain. What will have to be done to the BlackBerry device before it can be successfully activated over the wireless network? (Choose one)
A. Perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
B. Perform a security wipe on the BlackBerry device
C. Delete all Desktop Service books
D. Have the service provider re-provision the BlackBerry device
E. Remove the Messages icon

Correct Answer: B 200-125 exam 

 

 

QUESTION 38
Which two of the following options is the BlackBerry device waiting to receive at the Waiting for services stage of the wireless enterprise activation? (Choose two)
A. An IT Policy
B. Service Books
C. PIM items from the messaging server
D. An encryption key
E. An ETP.DAT message

Correct Answer: AB

 

 

QUESTION 39
A BlackBerry device users calls in because the enterprise activation of a new BlackBerry device is stopping at Activating. Which two of the following steps should be followed by a support representative in order to help the user? (Choose two)
A. Tell the user to contact their internet service provider
B. Check provision and if it incorrect educate the user on the required provisiong services
C. Have the system administrator remove the re-add the user to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Verify that the user is entering the activation password exactly as provided
E. Have the user perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 40
Which service book is required for wireless aclendar synchronization? (Choose one)
A. Desktop[CMIME]
B. Desktop[CICAL]
C. Desktop[CALCYNC]
D. Desktop[IPPP]
E. Desktop[SYNC]
Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 41 Which two of the following scenarios explains why Email Settings is grayed out in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two)
A. A supported email application is installed but not running
B. BlackBerry Desktop Manager was not fully installed
C. The appropriate permissions weren not present during the installation of BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. A MAPI profile was not selected
E. No supported email application is installed

Correct Answer: DE

 

 

QUESTION 42
After connecting a BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and clicking Synchronize, the following error message is displayed. No applications configured for synchronization What is the cause of the error message? (Choose one)
A. No programs for synchronization are currently installed on the computer
B. BlackBerry Desktop Manager does not have the correct application connectors installed
C. Organizer data application have not been configured for synchronization
D. USB drivers are not properly installed on the computer
E. Invalid MAPI profile selected

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 43
Which two of the following features are confugured through the Email Settings application in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two)
A. Wireless message reconciliation
B. Folder redirection
C. Calendar reconciliation
D. Calendar redirection
E. Message redirectino

Correct Answer: BE

200-125 exam

The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Routing and Switching composite exam (200-125 exam) is a 90-minute, 50–60 questions assessment that is associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. This 200-125 exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, infrastructure security, and infrastructure management in our websites:http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html

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Salesforce ADM-211 Practice Exam Questions And Answers Online Free Update

The Salesforce Certified Advanced Administrator program is designed for individuals who have expertise as a seasoned Salesforce Administrator. The program encompasses the Salesforce ADM-211 practice exam breadth of applications, the features and functions available to an end user, and the advanced configuration, management, and application extending options available to an Administrator across the Sales Cloud, Service Cloud, and Salesforce Chatter applications.

Question 1
Universal Containers has a custom field on its contact record called Salary that is hidden for all profiles except the System Administrator. The Administrator has been asked to grant Read-Only access to the Salary field to the recruiters and assistants. The recruiters and assistants currently have two different profiles.
How can the Administrator meet this requirement? Choose two answers
A. Change the access levels in the Recruiter and Assistant profiles to Read-Only for the Salary field.
B. Create a sharing rule for the Contact object using criteria-based sharing on the Salary field.
C. Create a permission set with Read-Only access to the Salary field and assign it to the assistant and recruiter users.
D. Create a new profile for the assistants and recruiters and reassign these users to the new profile.
Answers: A, C

Question 2
Sales representatives are reporting trouble syncing quotes with their related opportunities.
What is a possible explanation for this problem? Choose two answers
A. The attached currency is no longer active.
B. The quote contains an archived list price.
C. The quote is attached to a closed opportunity.
D. The user does not have Edit permissions on the quote.
Answers: A, B
adm-211
Question 3                            ADM-211 practice exam
What should an Administrator consider when setting up and maintaining Salesforce Knowledge? Choose three answers
A. Data category visibility is assigned through roles and profiles.
B. Article version numbers must be assigned by a Knowledge Manager for tracking.
C. Knowledge settings must be configured in order for users to be able to create articles from cases.
D. Solution category browsing must be enabled in Solution settings.
Answers: A, C, D

Question 4
The sales manager at Universal Containers wants to see all opportunities that do not have any activities.
Which report type could be used to meet this requirement? Choose two answers
A. A custom report type with Opportunity as the primary object and Activity as the secondary object.
B. An opportunity report with a cross-object filter of opportunities without activities.
C. A joined report using an opportunity report in Block A; a task and event report filtered by tasks for Block B.
D. A standard opportunity filtered by the field Last Activity and a custom date range that is blank.
Answers: B, D

Question 5
Universal Containers has a requirement to report on opportunities where the probability has dropped beneath 50%. The Administrator has created a custom checkbox as a way to identify these records.
What else should the Administrator do to meet this requirement? Choose one answer
A. Enable field history tracking on the field and include the history in the report filter.
B. Create an approval process that submits the opportunity for approval when the custom checkbox is true.
C. Create a workflow rule that updates the field when the probability drops below 50%.
D. Build a validation rule that displays an error when the user enters the probability at less than 50%.
Answers: C

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070-463 Dumps Latest Microsoft 070-463 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers

Question No : 1
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for 070-463 dumps each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C

Question No : 2
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project has been deployed to the SSIS catalog.
The project includes a project Connection Manager to connect to the data warehouse.
The SSIS catalog includes two Environments:
Development
QA
Each Environment defines a single Environment Variable named ConnectionString of type string. The value of each variable consists of the connection string to the development or QA data warehouses.
You need to be able to execute deployed packages by using either of the defined Environments.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)   070-463 dumps
070-463
Answer:
070-463

Question No : 3
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?
A. Add StartDate and EndDate columns to the customer dimension.
B. Add an IsCurrent column to the customer dimension.
C. Enable Snapshot Isolation on the data warehouse.
D. Add CurrentValue and PreviousValue columns to the customer dimension.
Answer: A

Question No : 4
You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
Answer: C

Question No : 5
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.  070-463 dumps
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J

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Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers Free Update

External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.

External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
70-331
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.

Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and an already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.

Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.

MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.

The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html Additionally, items that have been crawled are turned into artifacts in this stage for inclusion within the search index. Link and URL information is stored in the link database and then processed and forwarded to the Analytics Processing component.

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