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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 18 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Answer: E
Question No : 19 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
070-461 dumps

You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query.
B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader.
C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query.
D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE()
C. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112)
D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()))
Answer: D
Explanation:
Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer:

You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables.
Question No : 21 Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: F

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Core1, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You join Core1 to the adatum.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1.
What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run sconfig.exeand configure remote management
C. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
D. Run sconfiq.exeand configure the network settings.
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when users are connected to the network, they always use local offline files that are cached from Server1.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure?
A. Configure slow-link mode.
B. Configure Slow link speed
C. Enable file synchronization on costed networks
D. Turn on economical application of Administratively assigned Offline Files.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run either Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Serve 2012 R2. All client
computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
and Storage Services server role installed. On Server1, you create a share named Share1.
You need to ensure that users can use Previous Versions to restore the files in Share1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. The Shadow Copies settings
B. A Windows Server Backup schedule
C. A data recovery agent
D. The Recycle Bin properties
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Print and Document Services server role installed. Server1 is connected to
two identical print devices. You need to ensure that users can submit print jobs to the print devices. The solution must ensure that if one print device fails, the print
jobs will print automatically on the other print device.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Add two printers and configure the priority of each printer.
B. Add one printer and configure printer pooling.
C. Install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature, and then add one printer.
D. Install the Failover Clustering feature, and then add one printer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You open Server Manager on Server2 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The Everyone group has read share permission and read NTFS permission to Sources. You need to ensure that when users browse the network, the Sources
share is not visible.
What should you do?

70-410 dumps

A. From the properties of the Sources folder, remove the Sources share, and then share the Sources folder as Sources$
B. From the properties of the Sources folder, deny the List Folder Contents permission for the Everyone group
C. From the properties of the Sources share, configure access-based enumeration
D. From the properties of the Sources folder, configure the hidden attribute
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You
connect a new print device to the network. The marketing department and the sales department will use the print device. You need to provide users from both
departments with the ability to print to the network print device. The solution must ensure that if there are multiple documents queued to print, the documents from
the sales users print before the documents from the marketing users.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Add two printers. Modify the priorities of each printer and the security settings of each printer
B. Add two printers and configure printer pooling
C. Add one printer and configure printer pooling.
D. Add one printer. Modify the printer priority and the security settings
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Window Server 2012 and a
server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Server1 and Server2 are member server. You need to ensure that you can
manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on Server1.
B. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on Server2.
C. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on Server1.
D. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on Server2.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on Server2
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 36
Your infrastructure divided in 2 sites. You have a forest root domain and child domain. There is only one DC on site 2 with no FSMO roles. The link goes down to
site 2 and no users can log on.
What FSMO roles you need on to restore the access?
A. Infrastructure master
B. RID master
C. Domain Naming master
D. PCD emulator
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You perform a Server Core Installation of window Server 2012 R2 on server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to server1. Which
tool should you use?
A. the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet

B. the Install-Module cmdlet
C. the setup.exe command
D. the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A network technician installs Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard on a server named Server1. A corporate policy states that all servers must run Windows Server
2012 R2 Enterprise. You need to ensure that Server1 complies with the corporate policy. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of
administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. a clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
B. an upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
C. online servicing by using Dism
D. offline servicing by using Dism
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 1
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP 
doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network 300-135 exam problems. 300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps

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300-135 dumps

The following debug messages are noticed for HSRP group 2. But still neither R1 nor R2 has identified one of them as standby router. Identify the reason causing
the issue.
Note: only show commands can be used to troubleshoot the ticket.
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:39.234: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:40.034: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:40.364: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:41.969: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:42.719: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:42.918: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:44.869: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:45.485: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:45.718: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:47.439: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:48.252: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:48.322: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.389: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.735: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.921: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.089: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.338: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active pri130vlP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.633: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
A. HSRP group priority misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
D. This is not an HSRP issue: this is DHCP issue.
E. The ACL applied to interface is blocking HSRP hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On R1 we see that access list 102 has been applied to the Ethernet 1/0 interface:

300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

This access list is blocking all traffic to the 224.0.0.102 IP address, which is the multicast address used by HSRP.
QUESTION 2
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
300-135 dumps

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300-135 dumps

Examine the configuration on R4. The 300-135 dumps routing table shows no entries for 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.20.0/24. Identify which of the following is the issue preventing
route entries being installed on R4 routing table?
A. HSRP issue between R4 and R2
B. This is an OSPF issue between R4 and R2
C. This is a DHCP issue between R4 and R2
D. The distribute-list configured on R4 is blocking route entries
E. The ACL configured on R4 is blocking inbound traffic on the interface connected to R2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If we look at the configuration on R4 we see that there is a distribute list applied to OSPF, which blocks the 172.16.20.0/24 and 172.16.10.0/24 networks.

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are
not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing
that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip
EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip
EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to
use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure
the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to determine a likely ‘go
live’ date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team’s timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
[K2] 1 credit
A. (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (vi)
D. (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
As a test analyst you are involved in the early stages of an acceptance test for a Product Data
Management system. You are asked to write test designs and test cases based on use cases. An
early version of the system is also already available. It is a known fact that on the implementation
level many things will change (including the user-interface). The tests will be carried by end-users
with much domain knowledge who have also been involved in the project defining the user
requirements and reviewing documentation.
What is the BEST option regarding the level of detail and documentation required for test cases in
the project?
[K4] 3 credits

A. Detailed concrete test cases since many re-runs of the tests are expected
B. Logical test cases supported by concrete test cases to allow for traceability and enable future
changes
C. Concrete test cases only since the end-users have extensive domain knowledge
D. Logical test cases only since the end-user have extensive domain knowledge and many
changes are expected thus reducing testware maintenance effort
300-135 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
As a test analyst you are gathering data to support accurate metrics. Which of the following
metrics would be MOST appropriate to use to monitor product quality?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Defects found versus defects expected
B. Tests run and tests passed
C. Test resources spent versus budget
D. Compliance to entry criteria
E. Product risks outstanding and new risks introduced
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following tasks and responsibilities do NOT belong to that of a test analyst in the
context of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
[K2] 1 credit
A. The test analyst should be able to use the reporting tools
B. The test analyst is responsible for supplying accurate information
C. The test analyst will contribute to the final report at the end of the testing
D. The test analyst should write final test reports objectively
300-135 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
What is the MOST important reason why test conditions should be understandable by
stakeholders?
[K2] 1 credit
A. They should be able to review the test conditions and provide feedback to the test analyst
B. They should be able to use them as a basis for designing test cases
C. They should be able to use them to establish traceability to requirements
D. Test documentation should always be understandable by all stakeholders
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Working together with the test manager during test planning, which of the following activities is
NOT expected to be performed by the test analyst?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Review the test estimates of the test manager
B. Review the test plan for non-functional testing
C. Organize adequate test resources
D. Being involved in risk management sessions
300-135 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to when the test analyst should become
involved during different lifecycle models?
[K2] 1 credit

A. In a sequential V-model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design
concurrently with coding
B. In Agile projects the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently with coding
C. In a sequential model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with software design
D. In an embedded iterative model the test analyst should expect to be involved in the standard
planning and design aspects
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following is a type of testing that someone in the role of a test analyst, working with
the test manager, should typically consider and plan for?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Security testing
B. Reliability testing
C. Accessibility testing
D. Performance testing
300-135 pdf 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 219

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QUESTION 34.You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has
mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external
domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for
each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information
only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
070-347 exam Answer: D, F
QUESTION 35.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000
people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will
take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the
employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the
migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in
plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only
Answer: C
QUESTION 36.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email
messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language
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QUESTION 37
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the
same scrambling code group.
070-347 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 39
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic
power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB.

C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D
QUESTION 40
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450
for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
070-347 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D
QUESTION 42
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLDCH, it
retransmits the message RRCConnectionReleaseComplete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the
idle mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink
throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64,
0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76.

B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D
QUESTION 44
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE
should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
070-347 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours
the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C
QUESTION 46
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging
information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B.by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn’t know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality.
070-347 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data.

Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The WCDMA – GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
070-347 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 49
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
Answer: D
QUESTION 50
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is
under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 51
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent
AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C.URA-PCH state.
D.CELLFACH state.

QUESTION 52
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2
kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many
sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area
of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
070-347 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B
QUESTION 54
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the
outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A
QUESTION 55
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies.
070-347 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 56
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM
possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C
QUESTION 57
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
070-347 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer:
QUESTION 59
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
070-347 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is a typical value (in dB) of the “PtxPrimaryCPICH” parameter (this parameter
determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC
WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100

Answer: A

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Exam Code: 220-901
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (901)
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 296

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which of the following should a technician do NEXT after reporting an 220-901 dumps incident?
A. Delete the content
B. Confiscate the PC
C. Go back to work
D. Document the incident
220-901 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following interfaces are used to simultaneously transfer video and audio at high rates?
A. HDMI
B. DVI-D
C. S-Video
D. DVI-I
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
To configure two drives for MAXIMUM performance, which of the following 220-901 dumps RAID types should be used?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is important when replacing a power supply in a workstation located in a datacenter
server rack?
A. A fanless power supply should be used
B. The proper voltage must be selected
C. The unit must be the same or less wattage
D. The power connector location must be the same
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
An IT Director wants to increase security on the company website to prevent man-in-the-middle a acks.
Which of the following Internet protocols should be implemented to meet the requirement?
A. HTTPS
B. IMAP
C. TELNET
D. SMTP
220-901 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are standard AMD processor socket types? {Select TWO).
A. 1366

B. 1155
C. 940
D. LGA
E. F
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following external ports would a technician use to connect a keyboard? {Select TWO).
A. eSATA
B. IEEE 1394
C. USB
D. PS/2
E. VGA
220-901 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which of the following types of device cable types are used to connect output devices such as printers and
scanners?
A. Parallel
B. eSATA
C. IDE
D. PATA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A workstation has a network link light, but it cannot access internal network resources. Which of the
following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. Slow transfer speeds
B. IP address conflict
C. Incorrect gateway
D. Packet collisions
220-901 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A user is trying to use an external hard drive with an incompatible file system. Which of the following tools
will allow the user to change the file system on the hard drive?
A. format
B. defrag
C. bootrec
D. chkdsk
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
A user notices the printer that is used for printing global shipper’s labels is missing columns in the printed
labels. The special 220-901 dumps label stock is new and appears to be fine. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST when troubleshooting this problem?
A. Remove any stuck labels from the paper path

B. Clean the pickup rollers and check them for wear
C. Clean the print head with approved materials
D. Replace and realign the print head
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A technician is tasked with upgrading the hard drives of a high-end workstation to SSD. The drives must be
configured in a RAID array, but the RAID card does not support SSD. Which of the following would the
technician verify in order to use the new drives?
A. Controller firmware
B. Power requirements
C. File system type
D. System BIOS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there
are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
220-901 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A technician is installing a wireless router to be used as an access point. The company firewall will assign
IP addresses to devices on the wireless network. Which of the following settings does the technician need
to disable on the wireless router to accomplish this?
A. NAT
B. DMZ
C. PAT
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
A SOHO is considering a purchase of several printers that will facilitate printing on both sides of the medi
A. Which of the following optional add-ons will provide this functionality?
B. Collate
C. Duplex
D. Fast draft
E. Paper type
220-901 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
A technician is tasked with setting up a workstation in a new location. The technician realizes there is no
network connectivity and the workstation’s NIC does not have a link light. Given the connection in the wall
is correctly labeled, which of the following would be BEST for the technician to use NEXT?
A. A multimeter

B. A tone generator
C. A cable tester
D. A punchdown tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an advantage of using 220-901 dumps static IP addresses for a business?
A. High availability
B. Simplifies IP management
C. Lower security risk
D. Scalability for upgrades
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is used to facilitate communications with a user’s smartphone in order to make
purchases and payments by proximity?
A. Bluetooth
B. IR
C. NFC
D. WPS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following devices is primarily intended to provide 24/7 diagnostic and biometric data regarding
the user?
A. Fitness monitor
B. e-Reader
C. Smartwatch
D. Smartphone
220-901 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A technician needs to set up a VPN for a small office. To ensure the network traffic is routed to the correct
machine, which of the following MUST the technician do on the router to accommodate this?
A. Port forwarding
B. Port redundancy
C. Port triggering
D. Port selection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
A technician is setting up a printer in a training room. The trainer needs to be able to print multiple copies
of the training documentation for the classes. Which of the following should the technician configure on the
printer to facilitate this?
A. Scanning
B. Collating
C. Faxing

D. Duplexing
220-901 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
The Tower of Hanoi is MOST likely configured in a system which implements:
A. a high RPM drives.
B. a tape drive.
C. an externally attached storage.
D. a RAID configuration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is required during the installation of a digitizer?
A. Must be connected to the Internet
B. Must be cleaned
C. Must have the latest software installed
D. Must be calibrated
220-901 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
A technician is building a new PC and notices that it has 8 DIMM sockets labeled 0 through 7. Four are
white and four are blue. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Install the memory in the four white slots
B. Install the memory in the four blue slots
C. Consult the motherboard documentation
D. Install the memory in slots 0 through 3
E. Fill all slots with memory
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 243

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70-414 dumps

4.You need to recommend a solution that meets the notification requirements.
Which System Center 2012 components should you include in the recommendation?
A. Service Manager, Orchestrator and App Controller
B. Configuration Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
C. App Controller, Configuration Manager and Operations Manager
D. Operations Manager, Service Manager and Orchestrator
70-414 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

5.You are evaluating the deployment of a multi-site Hyper-V failover cluster in the Miami office and the
Seattle office to host App2. You need to identify which changes must be made to support the use of the
multi-site cluster.
Which changes should you identify?
A. Configure all of the virtual machines to use dynamic memory. Implement Distributed File System (DFS)
Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated folder.

B. Implement Distributed File System (DFS) Replication and store the virtual machine files in a replicated
folder. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices.
C. Purchase a storage solution that replicates the virtual machines. Configure all of the virtual machines
to use dynamic memory.
D. Upgrade the WAN link between the Miami and Seattle offices. Purchase a storage solution that
replicates the virtual machines.
Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

6.You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application
requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
70-414 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

7.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in
the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security
requirements.
Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an SMB share.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
8.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in
the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security
requirements.
Solution: You recommend a scale-out file server that uses an NFS share.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

70-414 pdf Answer: B
9.In adatum.com, you install and configure a server that has the Active Directory Federation Services
server role and all of the AD FS role services installed. You need to recommend which AD FS
configurations must be performed m adatum.com to meet the security requirements.
Which configurations should you recommend before creating a trust policy?
A. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the
token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
B. Export the server authentication certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the
server authentication certificate from Trey Research.
C. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the server
authentication certificate from Trey Research.
D. Export the token-signing certificate and provide the certificate to Trey Research. Import the
token-signing certificate from Trey Research.
Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

70-414 dumps

10.You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used
in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the
security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
70-414 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

11.You are configuring the Certification Authority role service. From the Certification Authority console,
you enable logging. You need to ensure that configuration changes to the certification authority (CA) are
logged.
Which audit policy should you configure?

A. Audit policy change
B. Audit privilege use
C. Audit system events
D. Audit object access
Answer: D
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

12.You have a service template to deploy App1. You are evaluating the use of Network Load Balancing
(NLB) for the front-end servers used by App1. You need to recommend which component must be added

to the service template.
What should you recommend?
A. Guest OS profile
B. A host profile
C. A capability profile
D. A VIP template
70-414 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

38 / 113
13.You need to recommend a software update solution that meets the technical requirements.
What should you recommend deploying to each branch office?
A. An endpoint protection point
B. A distribution point
C. A management point
D. An enrollment proxy point

Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

14.What is the minimum number of certificate servers you need to deploy?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
70-414 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

Topic 5, Mix Questions
1.Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012.Server1
and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are part of a host group named Group1 in
Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Server1 and Server2 have identical
hardware, software, and settings. You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on
a host exceeds 65 percent.
The current load on the servers is shown following table.

70-414 dumps

You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VM8.VM8 has a CPU utilization of 20 percent. You
discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1. You need to ensure
that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.
What should you modify from the DynamicOptimizationconfiguration?
A. The Host Reserve threshold
B. The Power Optimization threshold
C. The Aggressiveness level
D. The Dynamic Optimization threshold
Answer: C
2.Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 file servers. The file servers
connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. You plan to implement 20 Hyper-V hosts in a failover cluster. The
Hyper-V hosts will not have host bus adapters (HBAs).
You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation that meets the following requirements:
– The virtual machines must support live migration.
– The virtual hard disks (VHDs) must be stored on the file servers.
Which two technologies achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Cluster Shared Volume (CSV)
B. An NFS share
C. Storage pools
D. SMB 3.0 shares
70-414 pdf Answer: C, D
3.Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2.The two data centers are
connected by using a low-latency high-speed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts

that run Windows Server 2012.All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data
center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts. You need to
recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper-V host fails.
– Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?
A. One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2
B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1
C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers
D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which syslog severity level is level number 7? 210-260 dumps
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? 210-260 pdf (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network? 210-260 dumps
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 12
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? 210-260 pdf (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNSD. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. 210-260 dumps What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
When running a “Run Tag Criteria” server task and the box for “Reset manually tagged and excluded systems” box is checked, this would:
A. Include both systems that match and don’t match.
B. Remove the tag on systems that do match the criteria.
C. Add the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
D. Remove the tag on systems that don’t match the criteria.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
To remove computers from ePO using the Active Directory Synchronization task, it is required that the account has access to the:
A. Deleted computers
B. Deleted Objects container
C. Organizational Unit
D. Active Directory.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What option can be configured in the On-Access General Policy that is not an option in the local VirusScan console?
A. Boot sectors
B. Floppy during shutdown
C. Enable on-access scanning at system startup
D. Enable on-access scanning when the policy is enforced
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
To ensure that a Rogue System Detection Sensor is not installed on a managed system, what action needs to be performed? MC1-001 pdf
A. Add the system to the Exception List
B. Add the system to the Blacklist
C. Add the system as Ignored
D. Add the system as Managed
Correct Answer: B
MC1-001 dumps
QUESTION 5              MC1-001 dumps
When configuring Product Deployment Client Tasks, the “Enable randomization” setting should be activated when managed client nodes exceed.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 750
D. 1000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following should be the primary consideration when deploying Agent Handlers?
A. Database increasing in size
B. Log files increasing in size
C. Memory and resource allocation
D. High speed and low latency connection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When backing up an ePO server, which of the following security keys is required to restore agent server communication?
A. Local Master Repository Communication
B. Agent Server Secure Communication
C. Legacy Agent Server Communication
D. McAfee SIA Repository Communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the correct order for creating a query?
A. Configure Chart, choose Columns, select Result Type, apply Filter
B. Select Result Type, choose Columns, configure Chart, apply Filter
C. Configure Chart, select Result Type, choose Columns, apply Filter
D. Select Result Type, configure Chart, choose Columns, apply Filter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When a policy is deleted, all systems for which it is currently applied to will inherit which policy? MC1-001 dumps
A. McAfee Default
B. Parent Group
C. My Default
D. Global Root
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following server services is responsible for communication with the McAfee Agent?
A. Apache
B. Tomcat
C. SQL
D. Event Parser
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a core architecture component of ePO?
A. Internet Explorer
B. Event Parser
C. Active Directory
D. Agent Handler
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Why would a managed system appear in the Lost & Found group? MC1-001 pdf
A. No matching criteria were found
B. Matched sorting criteria were found
C. Inactive Agent
D. Rogue Agent
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which areas of the console allow the resetting of inheritance? (Choose three)
A. Assigned Policies
B. Policy Catalog
C. Group Details
D. Systems
E. Client Tasks
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 14
Which settings are preserved when installing VirusScan on a computer that had a previous version installed? (Choose three)
A. Help files
B. Scanning Engine
C. Detection definition file
D. Log file names and locations
E. Registry Keys containing product versions
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
After a query has been completed, additional actions can be taken on the:
A. Lower right hand comer of page
B. Lower left hand corner of page
C. Upper right hand corner of page
D. Upper left hand corner of page
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
When creating a Run Query Server Task, which sub-actions can be selected to allow the system to automatically act upon the results of a query? (Choose three) MC1-001 dumps
A. Apply tag
B. Delete sensor
C. Create group
D. Export to file
E. Send snmp trap
Correct Answer: ABD

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[New Version] Latest Microsoft MB2-715 Dumps PDF Practice Materials And Youtube Free Demo

Comprehensive knowledge of Microsoft Microsoft Dynamics 365 products MB2-715 dumps exam is considered a very important qualification, http://www.itfinal.com/mb2-715.html dumps exam questions and answers, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations, high quality Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 dumps pdf training materials.

QUESTION 1
You have a Dynamics CHM organization that uses folder tracking. You have a folder named Customers that is currently being tracked- Customers contains a folder for The main contact named Contact1.
A new email message from Contact1 is delivered to your Inbox. You need to identity what will occur when you move the message to the Customer1 folder.
What should you identify?
A. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Customer1 and to Contact1
B. An email activity will be created in CRM that has a connection to Contact1 only.
C. An email activity will be created m CRM that has a connection To Customer1 only.
D. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field set to Contact1
E. An email activity will be created in CRM that has the Set regarding field Set to Customer1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a Dynamic CRM organization that has more than 700 active goals. At the end of each year, your company reevaluates each goal. You need to identify which value of the goals must be configured manually. MB2-715 pdf
Which value should you identity?
A. Actual
B. target
C. Rollup Query – Actual
D. In-Progress
E. Rollup Query – In Process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a Dynamics CRM organization that uses server-side synchronization to process email. A manager requests that you create the mailbox records defined as shown in the following table. MB2-715 dumps
MB2-715 dumps
You need to identify which record will fail to be created.
Which record should you identify?
A. User2
B. User3
C. User1
D. User4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a recalled product that should no longer be sold.
You need to remove the Product from the available list of products and to prevent any sales from being processed for the product.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. MB2-715 dumps
A. Remove the product from the family hierarchy.
B. Modify the open opportunities.
C. Update the price list.
D. Retire the product.
E. Modify the validity date of the product.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
You plan to export sales data that will be used in the annual report of your company. You need to provide a copy of some of the sales data to the company stakeholders. Which format can you use to export the data?
A. Adobe PDF
B. Microsoft Word
C. MicrosoftPowerPoint
D. Microsoft Visio
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You company employs consultants who bill customers for their time. You sales team is responsible for selling the consultants time, in addition to selling product licenses. You need to provide the sales team with the ability to create opportunities , quotes, and invoices for the consultant’s time. .
What should you create first? MB2-715 pdf
A. a product family
B. a price list
C. a product bundle
D. a unit group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a quote named Quote1 that was activated and presented to a customer You plan to take a long leave of absence. In your absence, a user named User2 will take ownership of Quo: You need to transfer ownership of Quote1 to User2.
What should you do?
A. Click Assign and select User2
B. Click Close and instruct User2 to create a new quote.
C. Click Share and select User2
D. Click Email a Link and select User2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have an opportunity record.
When you attempt to increase the Estimate Revenue field, you discover that the field is locked.
You need to identify a possible cause of the issue. MB2-715 dumps
What should you identify?
A. The products in the opportunity are write-in products.
B. The estimated revenue exceeds the budget amount.
C. The opportunity contains conflicting currencies.
D. The method of revenue is system-generated.
Correct Answer: D

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[New Version] Latest Cisco 300-210 Dumps PDF Practice Questions And Youtube Free Demo

Cisco 300-210 exam pdf training material offers the latest real 300-210 dumps. 100% real and pass guarantee with latest 300-210 exam questions update online. http://www.itfinal.com/300-210.html The best and most updated Cisco 300-210 dumps exam training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements describe effects of the DoNothing option within the untrusted network policy on aCisco AnyConnect profile? (Choose two.)
A. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of an untrusted network.
B. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of a trusted network.
C. The always-on feature is enabled.
D. The always-on feature is disabled.
E. The client does not automatically initiate any VPN connection.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-210
The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. 300-210 Which action will allow the session to establish correctly?
A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask.
B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched.
C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters.
D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which transform set is contained in the IKEv2 default proposal?
A. aes-cbc-192, sha256, group 14
B. 3des, md5, group 7
C. 3des, sha1, group 1
D. aes-cbc-128, sha, group 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.)
A. CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD
B. CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD
C. CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME
D. CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the IPsec PSK of a tunnel group in cleartext?
A. more system:running-config
B. show running-config crypto
C. show running-config tunnel-group
D. show running-config tunnel-group-map
E. clear config tunnel-group
F. show ipsec policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.) 300-210
A. IKEv1
B. IKEv2
C. SSL client
D. SSL clientless
E. ESP
F. L2TP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server.
Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?
A. HTTPS
B. NetBIOS
C. CIFS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which three types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose three.)
A. SAML
B. HTTP POST
C. HTTP Basic
D. NTLM
E. Kerberos
F. OAuth 2.0
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
The following configuration steps have been completeD.
WebVPN was enabled on the ASA outside interface.
SSL VPN client software was loaded to the ASA.
A DHCP scope was configured and applied to a WebVPN Tunnel Group.
What additional step is required if the client software fails to load when connecting to the ASA SSL page?
A. The SSL client must be loaded to the client by an ASA administrator
B. The SSL client must be downloaded to the client via FTP
C. The SSL VPN client must be enabled on the ASA after loading
D. The SSL client must be enabled on the client machine before loading
Correct Answer: C

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