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QUESTION: 1
Your organization is performing a Portfolio Analysis in Project Server 2013. You want to create a consolidated Portfolio Analysis optimization based on Cost and Resource data, which will be part of the project information in Project Server 2013. You plan to provide different simulations to your organization by using those parameters and returning the best prioritization. This organization has two different unit directors, who have the final decision on the consolidated Portfolio Analysis results. You need to provide the ability for your unit directors to modify the final portfolio selection. Which element should you use?
A. Resource Requirements
B. Project/Proposal Priority
C. Field Cost Constraint
D. Project Original Start
E. Field Force In/Out
74-344 exam Answer: E
QUESTION: 2
You are a project manager in an organization that uses Project Server 2013. All project managers have permission to edit all projects. You edit a project in Project Web App (PWA), make changes, publish the project, and close your browser. A project manager calls you to report they are unable to open your project for edit in PWA. You need to
resolve this issue. What should you do?
A. Advise the project manager to open the project in Project Professional 2013.
B. Open Project Professional 2013 and use the Clean Up Cache button.
C. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Check in My Projects button.
D. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Project Permissions button.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
Your organization is a multinational corporation that uses Project Online to plan and control the projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can participate in strategic projects. The Research and Development (R&D) department has been struggling to gather and materialize the new ideas. The
Project Management Office (PMO) has the necessary templates and Enterprise Project Types (EPTs) to start a formal process for any new product and to adhere to the general guidelines. However, the R&D group does not want to register all of their ideas since many are related to improvements and few of them could be materialized
 into projects. You need to generate a solution that allows R&D to gather their ideas and facilitate the materialization into Enterprise Projects. What should you do?
A. Create a new EPT for the SharePoint Task List and name it R&D New Idea.
B. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a Custom SharePoint Item List for ideation and requests with custom fields that easily match with Project custom fields when using the Add SharePoint Sites command in Project Center.
C. Create a new EPT for Enterprise Projects and name it R&D New Idea.
D. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a custom list for ideation and match list columns with Project custom fields when using the Create Projects command in the SharePoint Item List.
74-344 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
Your organization uses Project Online for project portfolio selection. The business drivers and priorities are set, as are the main constraints to identify the efficient frontier. The company has been collecting business cases for new proposals in which many projects may solve the same business need. For example, the selection for a Customer Relationship Management system has six different proposals, whereas only one is necessary to fulfill the business need. You need to guarantee that the analysis will produce the most viable proposal in terms of cost and resources and that no repetitive efforts exist in the portfolio selection. What should you do?
A. Create a mutual exclusion dependency among all these projects.
B. Create a mutual inclusion dependency among all these projects.
C. Exclude these projects from the Portfolio Analysis to prevent a deviation from the main goal.
D. Exclude the related projects from the portfolio after the cost analysis with the Force in/out option.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
You are a program manager for an organization that uses Project Server 2013. You are responsible for implementing a data warehouse that compiles relational data from many business areas. Your project managers need to be able to manage the implementation for a business area as separate projects, while still recognizing the dependencies at a program level. You need to maintain ownership and authority of key
program dates at the program level. What should you do?

A. Create one project file for all project managers that includes the program-level tasks and each sub-project’s tasks. Require each area project manager to share the file, and add their dependencies within their own tasks.
B. Create and publish a master project file with general durations for each business area sub-project, and have the area project manager reconcile the dates in their own project manually each week.
C. Have the project managers create, save, and publish sub-projects for each area. Then insert them into a program-level project, define dependencies, and save and publish the program-level project to the server.
D. Create a master project and insert your projects, but never publish the file on the server.
74-344 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
You are a program manager for a company that uses Project Server 2013 and Project Professional 2013. You manage the implementation of a data warehouse. You have set up your program master project with subprojects for each implementation area. You need to make edits to the dependencies between projects. What are two possible ways
to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. View the subproject in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in the predecessor’s/successor’s column.
B. Open the program-level project from Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013. Highlight the tasks you wish to link for a dependency with the control key. Then click the link button on the tool bar.
C. Open the program-level project and the subproject from the Project Web App (PWA) and save them to your local machine. Then add your predecessor’s/successor’s column in either file.
D. Open each of the required subprojects from the Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013 and create the link in the predecessor’s/successor’s column to the other projects using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
E. View the program-level project in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in the predecessor’s/ successor’s column using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: 070-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 230

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QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should separate Product Backlogs be maintained?
A. There are several Product Owners for one product. Each Product Owner should have their own
Product Backlog
B. There are multiple teams working on independent products. Each unique combination of team and
product should have an independent Product Backlog
C. There are multiple product features being developed by the same team.
D. There are multiple teams working on the components of the same product. Each team should an
independent Product Backlog

070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Who determines whether the development team has been assigned enough work in a Sprint?
A. The Development Team
B. The Product Owner
C. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master
D. The Scrum Master
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not a Product Owner responsibility?
A. Maintaining the Product Backlog with current information
B. Working with stakeholders to determine and detail product features
C. Assigning tasks to team members
D. Prioritizing the Product Backlog
070-463 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities do not occur at the end of the Sprint?
A. Software development
B. Release deployment
C. Sprint review meeting
D. Quality assurance testing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
What does the Scrum Development Team attempt to develop every Sprint?
A. A product that is ready for customer delivery
B. A completed Sprint Backlog
C. A product that is ready for QA and/or QC testing
D. A product increment that is potentially-ready for customer delivery
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
The Sprint planning meeting is comprised of how many sections?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
070-463 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum duration of each Sprint planning meeting section?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 15 minutes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
From the activities given, which is the latest step in sequence of the Scrum framework?
A. Daily scrum
B. Sprint retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint planning
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a Scrum Master responsibility?
A. Establish priorities together with product owner for Product Backlog items
B. Preventing Senior Management from shifting team priorities
C. Empowering the team
D. Socializing scrum throughout the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is reflected in a Sprint Burndown Chart?
A. Team Members Name
B. Number of Product Backlog Items Completed
C. Number of Tasks Remaining
D. Work Hours Remaining
070-463 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How many hours per day should a person on a Scrum team work?
A. A sustainable pace, usually from 7-8 hours per day.
B. An “ideal day” measuring only when he or she is productive.
C. However many hours are needed to get the work done.
D. 14 hours.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28. Which of the following items is NOT correct for this type of node?
A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
070-463 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
Answer: C
QUESTION 30. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 31. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customised applications to communicate with the workflow engine and

A. Marks the beginning of a workflow process
B. A process definition may have more than one Start Node
C. Activated by a process instance being started
D. Produces an event on each out-going arrow
Answer: B
QUESTION 33. Which of the following is NOT mode for defining expressions in Interstage BPM?
A. Constant Mode
B. Variable Mode
C. Default Mode
D. Expression Mode
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 34. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. The ability to easily create and modify visual business process models with no programming required
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A client-server architecture
Answer: D
QUESTION 35. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. A command line interface for fast access to functions
B. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
C. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
D. A web-enabled architecture
070-463 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 36. Which of the following is not a key feature of Interstage BPM?
A. An enterprise-wide, scaleable infrastructure for handling processes of all types
B. A universal to-do list that can be organised and filtered
C. A distributed storage system for documents and data
D. Model API that allows both customised applications to communicate with the workflow engine and

QUESTION 37. Although the following characteristics are useful in most workflow types, which of them is a key
feature of an Ad Hoc type of workflow?
A. Following stringent predetermined rules that never change
B. Record, organize and refine existing business processes while they are occurring
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order.
D. The ability to modify or alter a running process
070-463 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 38. When is the Process Discovery workflow type typically used?
A. Used as a planning tool in which a user may instantiate a process definition only once.
B. Used in those situations where individuals have evolved their job description by on-the-job experience
C. Used to assist in complex decision making where each case may be unique but must be handled in the
correct order
D. Used to ensure that regular business practice adhere to company policy
Answer: B
QUESTION 39. The Process Discovery workflow is a form of what other type of workflow?
A. Ad Hoc
B. Collaborative
C. Administrative
D. Component
070-463 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40. The combination of sub-processes and process editing features provided by IBPM allow which
workflow types to be supported?
A. Production, Case Handling
B. Ad-Hoc, Process Discovery
C. Production, Component
D. Collaborative, Component
Answer: B
QUESTION 41
B. (b)
C. (a), (b)
D. None of the above
070-463 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42. Which type of workflow does the following statement describe?
A system in which the users continuously see updated information in real time.?
A. Production
B. Process Discovery
C. Collaborative
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 82 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
70-742 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 83 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an “I” in the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is problematic.
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 84 Check Point’s NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection
B. Allowing IP fragmentation
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
70-742 dumps Answer: D, E

QUESTION NO: 85 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host? Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing. B.
After the outbound kernel, and before routing. C.
After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 86
Which of these options is NOT a principal activity of the Incident Management process?
A. Classification
B. Prioritisation
C. Escalation
D. Negotiation
70-742 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
Reducing the impact of disruptions to IT services on the business, improving staff utilisation and resolution times are benefits of which process?
A. Problem Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
If you were providing a list of key performance indicators for the Incident Management process, which of these options would you include?
A. Cost per Incident/Service Request
B. Frequency of technical Incidents
C. Incidents submitted by individual users
D. Percentage of Incidents resolved out-of-hours
70-742 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 89
Which statement most accurately describes typical key performance indicators for the Incident Management process?
A. Major Incidents failing to meet SLA; Incidents failing to match Known Errors; Cost per Problem
B. Total number of Incidents; total number of Service Requests; number of Incidents failing to meet the SLA
C. First Contact Resolutions; Second Level Resolutions; Workarounds
D. Cost per Incident; cost per Service Request; cost per Major Incident
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 90
What metrics would you NOT expect to come from the Incident Management process?
A. Incidents outstanding by resolver group
B. Number of Incidents closed on the first call
C. Number of escalations logged in the Incident lifecycle
D. Percentage of Incidents resolved out-of-hours
70-742 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 91
If you were establishing a Problem Management process in your organization, which of the following would be one of your primary objectives?
A. To eliminate all Problems over time
B. To prevent Incidents developing into Problems
C. To eliminate the occurrence of all user-related Problems
D. To minimise the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
Which of these options best describes a reactive objective of Problem Management?
A. To minimise the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
B. To prevent the occurrence of Incidents
C. To prevent the recurrence of Incidents
D. To determine the root cause of Incidents and initiate corrective actions
70-742 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93
Which statement best describes the difference between Reactive Problem Management and Proactive Problem Management?
A. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with solving problems in response to Known Errors; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with identifying quick fixes
B. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with solving problems in response to one or more Incidents; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with identifying underlying Problems
C. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with analysing and trending Incident records; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with solving problems in response to one or more Incidents
D. Reactive Problem Management is concerned with eliminating root causes; Proactive Problem Management is concerned with identifying future business needs
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
Which of the following is a Problem Management activity?
A. Reactive support
B. Error Control
C. SLA analysis
D. First contact resolution
70-742 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 95
Which of these options is NOT a benefit of the Problem Management process?
A. It improves productivity of the business and IT
B. It removes the need for SLAs
C. It reduces the time to resolve Incidents
D. It increases first contact resolutions
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of these options is a key performance indicator for Problem Management?
A. The time taken to resolve Problems by 2nd and 3rd level support
B. The number of Problems escalated by the Service Desk
C. The number of repeat Problems within a given period
D. A reduction in business impact caused by Problems
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 97
Which of these options would be considered a Problem Management KPI?
A. Service Desk SLAs being met
B. Number of escalations
C. Increased Incident resolution
D. Reduced numbers of Incidents
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO:27 Given:
11. // insert code here
12. private N min, max;
13. public N getMin() { return min; }
14. public N getMax() { return max; }
15. public void add(N added) {
16. if (min == null || added.doubleValue() < min.doubleValue()) 17. min = added;
18. if (max == null || added.doubleValue() > max.doubleValue()) 19. max = added;
20. }
21. }
Which two, inserted at line 11, will allow the code to compile? (Choose two.)
A. public class MinMax<? extends Object> {
B. public class MinMax<N extends Integer>
{ C. public class MinMax<N extends Object>
{ D. public class MinMax<N extends Number>
{ E. public class MinMax<?> {
F. public class MinMax<? extends Number>
70-774 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO:28 Given:
11. class A {
12. public void process() { System.out.print(“A,”); }
13. class B extends A {
14. public void process() throws IOException {
15. super.process();
16. System.out.print(“B,”);
17. throw new IOException();
18. }
19. public static void main(String[] args) {
20. try { new B().process(); }
21. catch (IOException e) { System.out.println(“Exception”); }}
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
B. Exception
C. A,B,Exception
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 20.
E. A NullPointerException is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO:29
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
70-774 dumps Answer:

The doesFileExist method takes an array of dir ctory
rootfilesystem and a file name. The method re:urns true if the file exists, false i’it does not.
Place the code fragments in position to complete this method.
public static boolean doesFileExist(String[] directories, String filename) {
I path= pat)1.getSubdirectory(dir); I
for String dir directories ){
return(file!= null),
}
path=pathgetFile(filename);
return.file.rsNew)!·
}
path=path.getSJbdirectory(dir);
Stringpah=;
Code Fragments
II
r
eturn
Ifile.isNew();
II
path=path,getFile(filename);
II return(fie!= nul),
II Filepath = new File(“);
return file.exists(); II returnpath.isFile(), II File file= new File(path.filename);
path=new Fle(path,dir); II Filepath= new File(file.separator);II path= path +File.separator+ dir;
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following are true about lock promotion? (Choose 3)
A. If other tasks hold locks conflicting with the type of table lock needed, lock
escalationoccurs.
B. If other tasks hold locks conflicting with the type of table lock needed, lock
escalationdoes not occur.
C. Page locks can be promoted to intent locks.
D. Page locks can be promoted to table locks.
E. Row locks can be promoted to page locks.
F. Rowlocks can be promoted to table locks.X
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION NO: 31
What type of lock prevents changes while allowing reads of locked objects?
A. Latch
B. Intent
C.Shared
D.Demand
70-774 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Using the sp_who output, how can you identify a system process?
A. The process ID is below 15
B. Theorigname is NULL
C. Theloginame is system
D. The hostname is the name of the machine ASE is running from
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
What command is used to display locking information and can be used to indicate the
potentialneed to change table lock scheme?
A. sp_tables
B. sp_statistics
C. sp_monitor
D. sp_object_stats
70-774 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following is true regarding semantic partitioning? (Choose 3)
A. Configuration parameter is on by default
B. Requiressa_role to enable
C. Partitioned tables can be created
D. Rows are assigned to different partitions based on a logical test
E. Partitions can be dropped
F. Computedcolumns are allowed in the key of range partitions
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which method can be used to correct data skew on a data-pages locked table that is
range-partitionedacross 4 segments?
A. usebcp to unload and reload the data
B. drop and recreate the clustered index
C. runreorg rebuild
D. run update table statistics
E. run alter table to change the partition ranges
70-774 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 36
What conditions must be met before altering the partition strategy of a table from roundrobin
to a range partitioned table?
A. Additional partitions must be added to the round-robin table
B. Table must beunpartitioned before changing partition strategy
C. Table data must be truncated
D. Table indexes must be dropped
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
What can be used to examine partition skews? (Choose 2)
A. sp_helpdb
B. sp_helpartition
C. sp_help
D. optdiag
E. reorg
70-774 dumps Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following is the default partitioning strategy?
A. hash
B. list
C. range
D. roundrobin
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
A table, column and index name can be bytes long?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 255
70-774 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Where does ASE gather aggregated historical query information in a persistent catalog?
A. sysgams
B. syslogs
C. sysquerymetrics
D. sysqueryplans
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
Maximum database size for 2K pages is?
A. 32 GB
B. 256 GB
C. 2 TB
D. 4 TB
E. 8 TB
70-774 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
What is the maximum system device size which ASE 15.0 can support?
A. 1 TB
B. 2 TB
C. 4 TB
D. 6 TB
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following are true regarding partitions? (Choose2)
A. Tables may be partitioned logically as well as physically
B. Global indexes may be created on each partition.
C. Data in each partition may be processed differently.
D. Global indexes can be clustered ornonclustered on range, hash, or list partitioned tables.
E. Each partition must reside on its own segment.
QUESTION NO: 44
Given the following table definition, start_date will be which of the following when retrieved? Create table rental (cust_id int, start_date as getdate() materialized, prod_idint)
A. the current date when the record is retrieved
B. the date when the record was inserted
C. the date of the last server restart
D. the current system date
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
What happens when a row is inserted into a list partitioned table but the key value is not within the list?
A. The row is inserted into the first partition.
B. The row is inserted into the last partition.
C. The insert fails with an errormessagE.
D. The insert is discarded without an errormessagE.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
B. A change that is made as the result of an audit
C. A change that correctly follows the required change process
D. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 73
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service
Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
B. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
B. Only requirements needed and agreed
C. Only capabilities needed and agreed
D. Only resources and capabilities needed
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Service Desk Manager
B. The Service Manager
C. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
D. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements of the organization

B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 79
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know
what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme focus on cost
B. Extreme focus on responsiveness
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus
200-155 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Where are we now?
B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
C. Prepare for action
D. Define what you should measure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 84
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Manager
D. The Service Desk Manager
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Catalogue Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software andlicences
C. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored
and protected
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
stored and protected

200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 45
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which feature of the Cisco 210-260 dumps Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and
sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
At what point is the LSP SRM flag cleared when an LSP is sent on an IS-IS point-to-point link? Choose two
answers.
A. As soon as the LSP is transmitted.
B. When an acknowledgment is received in the form of PSNP.
C. When an older LSP is received.
D. When a newer or same aged LSP is received.
E. Only when a newer LSP is received
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 50
Click the exhibit button.
Given the diagram below, what path will traffic follow from router R6 to router R3, and from router R3 to
router R6, if IS-IS is the routing protocol? The numbers beside the links are the metrics for that link.
A. Router R6 to router R3 will follow (R6-R5-R2-R3). Router R3 to router R6 will follow (R3- R2-R5-R6).
B. Router R6 to router R3 will follow (R6-R5-R2-R3). Router R3 to router R6 will follow (R3- R4-R2-R5-R6).
C. Router R6 to router R3 will follow (R6-R5-R2-R3). Router R3 to router R6 will follow (R3- R4-R7-R5-R6).
D. Router R6 to router R3 will follow (R6-R5-R7-R4-R3). Router R3 to router R6 will follow (R3-R4-R7-R5-R6).
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
When IS-IS elects a DIS, what is used as the tie breaker on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, if the priorities are
the same?
A. The system ID.

B. The loopback address.
C. The sequence number of the Hello packet.
D. The device that first initiated communication becomes the DIS
E. The highest interface MAC address.
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Two IS-IS L1/L2 routers are in the same area on the same Ethernet segment. How many adjacencies will
be formed between them?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
In IS-IS, which of the following statements regarding an L1/L2 router is false?
A. An L1/L2 router can have neighbors in different areas.
B. An L1/L2 router calculates separate SPF trees for the Level 1 and Level 2 topology.
C. An L1/L2 router advertises its L2 routes to its L1 neighbors.
D. An L1/L2 router sets the ATT bit in L1 LSPs to identify itself as an L1 router.
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
How are IS-IS LSPs sent on point-to-point links?
A. They are sent using multicast MAC addresses 0180:0200:0014.
B. They are sent using multicast MAC addresses 0180:c200:0015.
C. They are sent using a unicast address.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Given the NSAP address of 49.0012.1234.1234.1234.00, what area does the IS-IS router reside in?
A. 49.0012.1234
B. 49.0012
C. 12.1234
D. 1234
E. 49.1234
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
Which type of IS-IS router is summarization most likely to be configured on?
A. L1 routers
B. L2 routers
C. L1/L2 routers

D. L1 and L2 routers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Click the exhibit button.
Router R2 advertises the network 192.168.3.0/24 to router R1 via OSPF. A route policy has been
constructed to discard the route on router R1; however, it is not working. What is the problem?
A. The prefix list reject should be “192.168.3.0/16 exact”.
B. Router R1 should be configured as an OSPF “asbr”.
C. The policy “reject” should be set for import rather than export.
D. The policy was likely not “committed” after creation.
E. This is not possible because OSPF cannot use import policies.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 58
Click the exhibit button.
If router R2 redistributes the IS-IS route to 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF, router R3 preference of these two
routes? Choose two answers.
A. The OSPF internal preference
B. The IS-IS Level 1 internal preference
C. The IS-IS Level 2 internal preference
D. The OSPF external preference
E. The IS-IS Level 2 external preference
F. The IS-IS Level 1 external preference
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 59
An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route via an IS-IS LSP with internal reach ability, and receives the
same route via an OSPF type 5 LSA. If al protocol preferences are default, which route will be installed in
the route table?
A. The route learned via IS-IS will be installed.
B. The route learned via the OSPF type 5 LSA will be installed.
C. Both routes will be installed, if ECMP is enabled.
D. Both routes will be installed, regardless of whether ECMP is enabled.
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which of the following cannot be used as a matching criterion in route policy statements?
A. Source IP address
B. TCP source port
C. Prefix list
D. Protocol type
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
How many databases does a Link State routing protocol use?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
In an IP datagram, which field identifies the receiving application
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header
B. The port field of the transport layer header
C. The protocol field of the network layer header
D. The port field of the network layer address
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A static route is created using the command “static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 3.3.3.1”. What command could
be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. Ping static 3.3.3.1
B. Ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. Ping 3.3.3.1
D. Ping 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 18 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Answer: E
Question No : 19 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
070-461 dumps

You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query.
B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader.
C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query.
D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 20 Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE()
C. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112)
D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()))
Answer: D
Explanation:
Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer:

You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables.
Question No : 21 Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: F

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On a server named Core1, you perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You join Core1 to the adatum.com domain.
You need to ensure that you can use Event Viewer on Server1 to view the event logs on Core1.
What should you do on Core1?
A. Run the Enable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
B. Run sconfig.exeand configure remote management
C. Run the Disable-NetFirewallRulecmdlet.
D. Run sconfiq.exeand configure the network settings.
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when users are connected to the network, they always use local offline files that are cached from Server1.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure?
A. Configure slow-link mode.
B. Configure Slow link speed
C. Enable file synchronization on costed networks
D. Turn on economical application of Administratively assigned Offline Files.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run either Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Serve 2012 R2. All client
computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
and Storage Services server role installed. On Server1, you create a share named Share1.
You need to ensure that users can use Previous Versions to restore the files in Share1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. The Shadow Copies settings
B. A Windows Server Backup schedule
C. A data recovery agent
D. The Recycle Bin properties
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Print and Document Services server role installed. Server1 is connected to
two identical print devices. You need to ensure that users can submit print jobs to the print devices. The solution must ensure that if one print device fails, the print
jobs will print automatically on the other print device.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Add two printers and configure the priority of each printer.
B. Add one printer and configure printer pooling.
C. Install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature, and then add one printer.
D. Install the Failover Clustering feature, and then add one printer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You open Server Manager on Server2 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The Everyone group has read share permission and read NTFS permission to Sources. You need to ensure that when users browse the network, the Sources
share is not visible.
What should you do?

70-410 dumps

A. From the properties of the Sources folder, remove the Sources share, and then share the Sources folder as Sources$
B. From the properties of the Sources folder, deny the List Folder Contents permission for the Everyone group
C. From the properties of the Sources share, configure access-based enumeration
D. From the properties of the Sources folder, configure the hidden attribute
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You
connect a new print device to the network. The marketing department and the sales department will use the print device. You need to provide users from both
departments with the ability to print to the network print device. The solution must ensure that if there are multiple documents queued to print, the documents from
the sales users print before the documents from the marketing users.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Add two printers. Modify the priorities of each printer and the security settings of each printer
B. Add two printers and configure printer pooling
C. Add one printer and configure printer pooling.
D. Add one printer. Modify the printer priority and the security settings
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Window Server 2012 and a
server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Server1 and Server2 are member server. You need to ensure that you can
manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on Server1.
B. Install Windows Management Framework 3.0 on Server2.
C. Install the Windows PowerShell 2.0 engine on Server1.
D. Install Microsoft .NET Framework 4 on Server2.
E. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on Server2
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 36
Your infrastructure divided in 2 sites. You have a forest root domain and child domain. There is only one DC on site 2 with no FSMO roles. The link goes down to
site 2 and no users can log on.
What FSMO roles you need on to restore the access?
A. Infrastructure master
B. RID master
C. Domain Naming master
D. PCD emulator
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You perform a Server Core Installation of window Server 2012 R2 on server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to server1. Which
tool should you use?
A. the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet

B. the Install-Module cmdlet
C. the setup.exe command
D. the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A network technician installs Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard on a server named Server1. A corporate policy states that all servers must run Windows Server
2012 R2 Enterprise. You need to ensure that Server1 complies with the corporate policy. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of
administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. a clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
B. an upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
C. online servicing by using Dism
D. offline servicing by using Dism
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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300-135 dumps

QUESTION 1
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP 
doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network 300-135 exam problems. 300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

The following debug messages are noticed for HSRP group 2. But still neither R1 nor R2 has identified one of them as standby router. Identify the reason causing
the issue.
Note: only show commands can be used to troubleshoot the ticket.
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:39.234: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:40.034: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:40.364: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:41.969: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:42.719: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:42.918: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:44.869: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:45.485: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:45.718: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:47.439: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:48.252: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:48.322: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.389: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp 2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.735: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:50.921: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active prj 130 vIP 172.16.10.254
R1#
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.089: HSRP: Et1/0 Grp2 Hello out 172.16.20.2 Active pri 100 vIP 172.16.20.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.338: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello out 172.16.10.2 Active pri130vlP 172.16.10.254
‘Mar 26 11:17:53.633: HSRP: EtO/0 Grp 1 Hello in 172.16.10.1 Standby pri 100 vIP 172.16.10.254
A. HSRP group priority misconfiguration
B. There is an HSRP authentication misconfiguration
C. There is an HSRP group number mismatch
D. This is not an HSRP issue: this is DHCP issue.
E. The ACL applied to interface is blocking HSRP hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On R1 we see that access list 102 has been applied to the Ethernet 1/0 interface:

300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

This access list is blocking all traffic to the 224.0.0.102 IP address, which is the multicast address used by HSRP.
QUESTION 2
Scenario:
You have been asked by your customer to help resolve issues in their routed network. Their network engineer has deployed HSRP. On closer inspection HSRP doesn’t appear to be operating properly and it appears there are other network problems as well. You are to provide solutions to all the network problems.
300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

300-135 dumps

Examine the configuration on R4. The 300-135 dumps routing table shows no entries for 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.20.0/24. Identify which of the following is the issue preventing
route entries being installed on R4 routing table?
A. HSRP issue between R4 and R2
B. This is an OSPF issue between R4 and R2
C. This is a DHCP issue between R4 and R2
D. The distribute-list configured on R4 is blocking route entries
E. The ACL configured on R4 is blocking inbound traffic on the interface connected to R2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If we look at the configuration on R4 we see that there is a distribute list applied to OSPF, which blocks the 172.16.20.0/24 and 172.16.10.0/24 networks.

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are
not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing
that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip
EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip
EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to
use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure
the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to determine a likely ‘go
live’ date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team’s timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
[K2] 1 credit
A. (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (vi)
D. (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
As a test analyst you are involved in the early stages of an acceptance test for a Product Data
Management system. You are asked to write test designs and test cases based on use cases. An
early version of the system is also already available. It is a known fact that on the implementation
level many things will change (including the user-interface). The tests will be carried by end-users
with much domain knowledge who have also been involved in the project defining the user
requirements and reviewing documentation.
What is the BEST option regarding the level of detail and documentation required for test cases in
the project?
[K4] 3 credits

A. Detailed concrete test cases since many re-runs of the tests are expected
B. Logical test cases supported by concrete test cases to allow for traceability and enable future
changes
C. Concrete test cases only since the end-users have extensive domain knowledge
D. Logical test cases only since the end-user have extensive domain knowledge and many
changes are expected thus reducing testware maintenance effort
300-135 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
As a test analyst you are gathering data to support accurate metrics. Which of the following
metrics would be MOST appropriate to use to monitor product quality?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Defects found versus defects expected
B. Tests run and tests passed
C. Test resources spent versus budget
D. Compliance to entry criteria
E. Product risks outstanding and new risks introduced
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following tasks and responsibilities do NOT belong to that of a test analyst in the
context of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
[K2] 1 credit
A. The test analyst should be able to use the reporting tools
B. The test analyst is responsible for supplying accurate information
C. The test analyst will contribute to the final report at the end of the testing
D. The test analyst should write final test reports objectively
300-135 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
What is the MOST important reason why test conditions should be understandable by
stakeholders?
[K2] 1 credit
A. They should be able to review the test conditions and provide feedback to the test analyst
B. They should be able to use them as a basis for designing test cases
C. They should be able to use them to establish traceability to requirements
D. Test documentation should always be understandable by all stakeholders
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Working together with the test manager during test planning, which of the following activities is
NOT expected to be performed by the test analyst?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Review the test estimates of the test manager
B. Review the test plan for non-functional testing
C. Organize adequate test resources
D. Being involved in risk management sessions
300-135 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to when the test analyst should become
involved during different lifecycle models?
[K2] 1 credit

A. In a sequential V-model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design
concurrently with coding
B. In Agile projects the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently with coding
C. In a sequential model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with software design
D. In an embedded iterative model the test analyst should expect to be involved in the standard
planning and design aspects
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following is a type of testing that someone in the role of a test analyst, working with
the test manager, should typically consider and plan for?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Security testing
B. Reliability testing
C. Accessibility testing
D. Performance testing
300-135 pdf 
Answer: C

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[New Microsoft Version] The Best Microsoft 070-347 Dumps are Based On The Real Exam Questions Answers for Enabling Office 365 Microsoft Video Series (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 219

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QUESTION 34.You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has
mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external
domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for
each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information
only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
070-347 exam Answer: D, F
QUESTION 35.Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000
people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will
take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the
employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the
migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in
plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only
Answer: C
QUESTION 36.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email
messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language
content and IP addresses of the country or region of origin.
Which filters and options should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate 070-347 dumps answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

070-347 dumps

QUESTION 37
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronisation.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximise the number of neighbours belonging to the
same scrambling code group.
070-347 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 39
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic
power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB.

C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D
QUESTION 40
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450
for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
070-347 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D
QUESTION 42
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLDCH, it
retransmits the message RRCConnectionReleaseComplete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the
idle mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink
throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64,
0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76.

B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D
QUESTION 44
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE
should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
070-347 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours
the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C
QUESTION 46
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging
information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B.by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn’t know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality.
070-347 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data.

Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The WCDMA – GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
070-347 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 49
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
Answer: D
QUESTION 50
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is
under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 51
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent
AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware
channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C.URA-PCH state.
D.CELLFACH state.

QUESTION 52
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2
kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many
sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area
of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
070-347 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B
QUESTION 54
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the
outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A
QUESTION 55
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies.
070-347 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 56
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM
possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C
QUESTION 57
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
070-347 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer:
QUESTION 59
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
070-347 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is a typical value (in dB) of the “PtxPrimaryCPICH” parameter (this parameter
determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC
WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100

Answer: A

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