Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers Free Update

External content types incorporate Business Connectivity Services (BCS) functionality to enable external data to be represented within SharePoint sites. These content types are metadata that represent the following:
■ Connectivity information to data
■ Data definitions for the data
■ Behaviors applied to data
Information that is provided via the use of external content types is reusable, mimicking the Microsoft 70-331 exam behavior of normal content types within a site or site collection. Workers interacting with an external content type do not have to be aware of the underlying data type, connection type, or security present in the content type.
As the ultimate goal is to present external content exactly the same as internal content contained within SharePoint itself, external content types act the same as any other data presented in and consumed by both Microsoft Office and SharePoint. This includes the ability to search the content as well as taking it offline in Microsoft Outlook 2013.

External content types are highly useful after they are configured, allowing for the creation of lists and data columns within SharePoint that function identically to their native SharePoint counterparts.
70-331
As the information represented by external content types is provided by BCS, it only stands to reason that there would be some specific web parts created for this purpose:
■ Business Data List Displays a list of 70-331 pdf entity instances from a business application presented by BCS, such as a customer or order list
■ Business Data Item Displays the details of an item from a business application presented by BCS, such as a particular customer or order
■ Business Data Item Builder Creates a BCS item, providing it to other web parts Business Data Related List Displays a list of related items from a business application presented by BCS, such as all orders related to a particular customer
■ Business Data Actions Displays a list of actions available to a portal user, such as sending e-mail or editing customer information External content type and item pickers are also available for use within SharePoint along with profile pages, which can display details about a particular item. If more functionality is desired than what is presented by the OOB tools, development using external content types is available via the following:
■ SharePoint object model
■ Client object model
■ Representational State Transfer (REST) URLs
NOTE SHAREPOINT DESIGNER (SPD) 2013 AND EXTERNAL CONTENT TYPES
SharePoint Designer (SPD) has always been a tool that is heavily integrated with the SharePoint platform. In certain governance situations, it might make sense to limit the use of SPD, but note that there are some things that 70-331 vce SPD does exceptionally well that are beyond the scope of other toolsets. Designing SharePoint/BCS external content types is one of those functional requirements that heavily promotes the use of SPD for knowledge worker design specialists.

Designing keywords, promoted results, and managed properties Search has always been a keystone technology within SharePoint, and an already-adept search functionality has been heavily improved by the integration of FAST search. FAST search (an additional technology that can be installed alongside SharePoint Server 2010) is now a core technology within SharePoint Server 2013 and provides additional functionality not present within SharePoint Server 2010 search.
As you might have noticed from the title of this section, we are not heavily focused on the technicalities of search at this point; instead, we will lightly cover search architecture, choosing to focus on how search queries and results are “shaped” via the use of keywords, promoted results, and managed properties.

Core search components
Search can be broken down into six major components: Search Administration, Crawl, Content Processing, Analytics Processing, Indexing, and Query Processing.
The relationship between these components can be seen in Figure.
As you can see, the six components together accomplish two major 70-331 dumps tasks: crawls and queries. At one end of the process, content sources (such as file shares and SharePoint content) are crawled by the Crawl component; on the other end, the information has been broken down by search and is available for querying by users.

MORE INFO SEARCH IN SHAREPOINT SERVER 2013
For a detailed description of each search component and database, visit the TechNet article “Overview of Search in SharePoint Server 2013”. The Search Administration component simply provides for the administration of the search components, also providing for the creation and initialization of new search components. Unlike the rest of the components, Search Administration does not provide any information transfer to or from any of the other components.

The Crawl component simply performs a crawl of the content available in the content sources; this is usually accomplished via the use of an indexing connector or protocol handler. And depends on the type of file being crawled (Word, Excel, Acrobat, and so on). After the content has been crawled, it is passed on from the Crawl component to the 70-331 Content Processing component. Several operations are carried out within this step, one of which is the mapping of crawled properties to managed properties (which is discussed shortly).

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html Additionally, items that have been crawled are turned into artifacts in this stage for inclusion within the search index. Link and URL information is stored in the link database and then processed and forwarded to the Analytics Processing component.

Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-nz/learning/exam-70-331.aspx

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Last week, I have cleared Salesforce Certified Administrator certification. It is really a great feeling after passing the adm-201 exam dump certification. In this post, I would like to share the few information so that you can also make yourself ready for the certification.

  • First of all – go through the Study Guide in http://www.kill4exam.com/ADM-201.html This is very important and it will give you a very good idea about the certification.
  • Then if you / your organisation is having partner portal access, then I think you are really lucky. Go through the below training from Salesforce partner portal:
  • Administrative Essentials for New Admins
  • Analyze Your Data Your Way with Reports + Summarize Your data with Highlights, Charts and Dashboards
  • Administrative Essentials for the Service Cloud
  • Configure Salesforce with Custom Fields
  • Managing Users and Troubleshooting Login Issues
  • Getting Started with Managing Data
  • Customizing Profiles to Align with Your Business Need
  • Getting a Head Start with Chatter 
  • Salesforce Mobile

adm-201 exam dump

Que 1 :- What is true regarding the new Data Loader?

A. It has a new column flagging duplicate files.
B. It supports Web Server OAuth Authentication for Windows or Mac.
C. It has downloadable add-ons published through the AppExchange.
D. It works with all legacy security protocol.


Que 2 :-What key user access data is included in login forensics?


A. Who logged in from a new browser more than once in a day.
B. Who logged in more than the number set in the profile.
C. Who logged in during business hours.
D. Who logged in more than the average number of times.

Que 3 :- What does the Customize Application permission setting allow?

A. To create article types.
B. To edit contract settings.
C. To modify custom picklist values.
D. To create a new user.

Que 4 :- What object types is Work Orders object associated with?
Choose 2 answers

A. Products
B. Service Contracts
C. Milestones
D. Cases
E. Leads

Que 5. Which areas are calculated for the Health Check score?
Choose 2 answers

A. Number of users
B. Session Settings
C. Profiles and Permissions assigned
D. Password Policy
E. Login attempts

adm-201 exam dump

How to pass ADM 201–Salesforce certified administrator

ADM 201 or Salesforce certified administrator certification assesses you for the knowledge required to maintain a salesforce instance in a company. It checks candidates ability to configure an application in force.com application. But it does not evaluate against coding aspects like apex and visualforce.Difficulty wise it is a bit more tougher than DEV 401. adm-201 exam dump contains all the topics needed for DEV 401 along with some additional contents like basic knowledge in sales cloud, service cloud, chatter, reporting, user setup, securing application etc. Detailed syllabus can be found in below link.

First and mandatory thing to do while preparing is to go through the above adm-201 exam dump study guide. It will give you a very good understanding regarding different areas against which you will be assessed.

Structure of Exam

    It is a multiple choice exam with 60 questions. You will get 90 minutes to complete the exam and need 65 percentage(39 correct answers) to pass the adm-201 exam dump. Exam fee is $200. If you failed in first attempt, second attempt can be done with a fee of $100. Most of the companies have partnership with Kill4eaxam.com through which they will be able to get vouchers for exam. So if you are from a partner company of Kill4eaxam, try to get a voucher from your company.  

Materials to prepare

    This certification is demanded by companies looking for administrators. The role of an administrator in small to medium sized companies includes tasks like maintaining the production sandbox, creating users, managing security, running reports etc. Many business analysts who does not have plan to go to development side of Kill4exam.com also takes this adm-201. Kill4exam.com recommends its “Administration Essentials for new Admins” instructor led training program as a preparation for this certification. But it is a paid training. If you cannot afford paid training, you can pass it preparing with resources available online. Also there are many people who pasted notes from adm-201 exam dumps training online. For example check ADM Notes in this blog. Please find the list of other free resources to prepare for the exam from:http://www.kill4exam.com/GSEC.html

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C9530-404 Exam

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NO.1 When using the IBM built-in node to output a file using WebSphere MQ Managed File Transfer,
which message tree must be used to override the node properties?
A. Environment.Destination.File
B. LocalEnvironment.WrittenDestination.FTE
C. Environment.Destination.FTE
D. LocalEnvironment.Destination.FTE
Answer: B

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Free High Quality Cisco 300-115 Dumps Download

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE
Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.

QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switch Stack Offline Configuration

You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance
the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on
the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch .

You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned
configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists.

When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the
information appears in the running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down,
and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in
the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output.

The switch stack retains the provisioned configuration in the running configuration whether or not the provi- sioned switch is part of the stack. You can save the
provisioned configuration to the startup configuration file by entering the copy running-config startup-config privileged EXEC command. The startup configuration
file ensures that the switch stack can reload and can use the saved information whether or not the provisioned switch is part of the switch stack.
Effects of Adding a Provisioned Switch to a Switch Stack

When you add a provisioned switch to the switch stack, the stack applies either the provisioned configuration or the default configuration. Table 5-1 lists the events
that occur when the switch stack compares the provisioned configuration with the provisioned switch.

Table 5-1 Results of Comparing the Provisioned Configuration with the Provisioned Switch

Scenario Result

The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers and the switch types of the provisioned switch the provisioned configura-match. matches the stack member num- tion to the provisioned ber in the provisioned configura- switch and adds it to the tion on the stack, and stack.

2. If the switch type of the provi-sioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configura-tion on the stack.
The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers match but the switch of the provisioned switch the default configuration to types do not match. matches the stack member num- the provisioned switch and ber in the provisioned configura-tion on the stack, but adds it to the stack.
2. The switch type of the provi- The provisioned configura- sioned switch does not match the tion is changed to reflect switch type in the provisioned the new
information.
configuration on the stack.

The stack member num- The switch stack applies ber is not found in the pro- the default configuration to visioned configuration. the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack.
The provisioned configura-tion is changed to reflect the new information.
The stack member num- The stack master assigns a new The switch stack applies ber of the provisioned stack member number to the pro- the provisioned configura- switch is in conflict with an visioned switch. tion to the provisioned existing stack member. switch and adds it to the The stack member numbers and stack.
the switch types match: The provisioned configura-
1.
If the new stack member tion is changed to reflect number of the provisioned switch the new information. matches the stack member num-ber in the provisioned configura-tion on the stack, and

2.
If the switch type of the provi-sioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configura-tion on the stack.
The stack member numbers The switch stack applies match, but the switch types do the default configuration to not match: the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack.
1.
If the stack member number of the provisioned switch The provisioned configura-matches the stack member num- tion is changed to reflect ber in the provisioned configura- the new information. tion on the stack, but

2.
The switch type of the provi-sioned switch does not match the switch type in the provisioned configuration on the stack.
The stack member num- The switch stack applies ber of the provisioned the default configuration to switch is not found in the the provisioned switch and provisioned configuration. adds it to the stack. Reference:

QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Physical Sequential Linkage The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable. Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

 

300-115 dumps

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1 channel-group 1 mode active switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1 channel-group 1 mode on switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
Mode Description

active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets.

auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotia-tion. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.

desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets.

on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on
mode is connected to another interface group in the on mode.

passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet ne-gotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such
as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers.
Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:

An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.

An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.

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QUESTION 34
A customer needs a campus LAN networking solution that supports traditional desktops and wireless devices. How can you distinguish HP from competing solutions?
A. Explain that HP does not offer wireless solutions because its networks work with the customer’s choice of wireless vendor.
B. Explain that HP provides simplified network solutions based on open standards that unify management of wired and wireless connectivity.
C. Explain that HP provides the only end-to-end solution based on proprietary wireless optimization technologies.
D. Explain that competitors only offer 1- or 2-tier solutions, but HP offers full 3-tier wired and wireless solutions.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/solutions/wlan/index.aspx
QUESTION 35
What differentiates HP Technology Services from its competitors’ services?
A. Expedited problem resolution for mission-critical devices, improving response times by 15%
B. Health check scans to determine the state of devices
C. Assigned technical experts, who are responsible for problems until they are completely resolved
D. multiple contracts and points of contact that cover all the company’s resources
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
What should you do in the final stage (stage 5) of a server sales opportunity?
A. State the value of the HP server solution for the customer; differentiate the HP solution from the competition.
B. Provide the customer with the ‘HP Just Right Guide’ or -HP Simply IT Solutions Guide’ to help them design the solution.
C. Plan all the products and services that the customer will require; explain the cost of the solution.
D. Help the customer plan for virtualization by highlighting HP server technologies and benefits. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
Converged Infrastructure is designed to solve many of the problems that affect traditional data centers. Which statement describes a common problem with traditional data centers?
A. Data centers are using two-tier architectures, which were designed to meet the needs of legacy client-server applications.
B. The IT infrastructure is compartmentalized into technology silos, making it difficult for IT to manage and change
C. Companies are relying more heavily on monolithic mainframes, decreasing the overall performance of the data center.
D. Bandwidth costs are increasing more rapidly than power and cooling costs, slowing the adoption of new bandwidth-intensive applications.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Traditional IT Infrastructure: (Study guide p.22)
Dedicated technology silos and lots of components created for peak capacity to meet each individual need

Compartmentalized with few standards that crossed multiple silos

Often requiring dedicated power, cooling, management and support in order to upgrade

Cost of maintenance continues to increase, while adding more complexity and reducing time spent on innovation
QUESTION 38
A medium-sized research company is considering an HP StoreOnce solution. Which feature distinguishes this HP solution from the competition?
A. Virtualization that extends even to entry level storage solutions
B. A thick provisioned memory cluster that protects customers’ data
C. Support for direct connectivity to servers with Converged Network Adapters (CNAs)
D. deduplicate data on application servers or backup servers before it is transferred to a centralized HP StoreOnce Backup system
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www8.hp.com/us/en/hp-news/press-release.html? th id=1247991#.Up4SUGQmmZ0 ( HP storeonce: redefining data deduplication, 4 para)
QUESTION 39
Which type of HP servers save space and pool power, cooling, and management resources? (Select two.)
A. Mounted
B. Tower
C. Blade
D. Cartridge
E. Rack
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Moonshot server cartridges are ideal for dedicated workloads, and fit in a system chassis providing shared power, cooling, and management resources for the server cartridges. (Study guide p.15)
Blade servers are ideal for data centers and for use with external storage, and offer maximum computing power in space, power, and cooling saving designs.
The ProLiant BL family is a community of servers where functionality that is dedicated and specialized is separate and everything that is common is shared. (Study guide p.14)
QUESTION 40
You are meeting with a customer to discuss a server solution. According to the server opportunity timeline, how should you begin the conversation?
A. Ask about the customer’s budget.

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QUESTION NO: 205
Which of the following two components does Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) consist of?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Data service
B. Account service
C. Ticket-granting service
D. Authentication service
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 206
Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. VPN

B. ATM
C. SSL
D. SET

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 207
Which of the following encryption algorithms are based on stream ciphers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. RC4
B. FISH
C. Blowfish
D. Twofish
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 208
Which of the following is the most secure policy for a firewall?
A. Passing all packets unless they are explicitly rejected.
B. Enabling all internal interfaces.
C. Blocking all packets unless they are explicitly permitted.
D. Disabling all external interfaces.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 209
Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Password guessing attack
D. Smurf attack
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 210

You work as a Web Developer for WebCrunch Inc. You create a web site that contains information about the company’s products and services. The web site is to be used by the company’s suppliers only. Which of the following options will you use to specify the nature of access to the web site?
A. Intranet
B. Internet and Intranet
C. Internet
D. Extranet
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 211
Which of the following statements about buffer overflow are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a situation that occurs when a storage device runs out of space.
B. It can terminate an application.
C. It can improve application performance.
D. It is a situation that occurs when an application receives more data than it is configured to accept
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 212
Which of the following ports is used by a BOOTP server?
A. UDP port 389
B. UDP port 67
C. TCP port 80
D. TCP port 110
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 213
Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer?
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3)
D. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 214
Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 215
Which of the following authentication protocols provides support for a wide range of authentication methods, such as smart cards and certificates?
A. EAP
B. CHAP
C. MS-CHAP v2
D. PAP

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 216

Which of the following performs packet screening for security on the basis of port numbers?
A. Switch
B. DNS
C. Hub
D. Firewall
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 217
Which of the following are man-made threats that an organization faces?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Frauds
B. Strikes
C. Employee errors
D. Theft
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 218
In the DNS Zone transfer enumeration, an attacker attempts to retrieve a copy of the entire zone file for a domain from a DNS server. The information provided by the DNS zone can help an attacker gather user names, passwords, and other valuable information. To attempt a zone transfer, an attacker must be connected to a DNS server that is the authoritative server for that zone. Besides this, an attacker can launch a Denial of Service attack against the zone’s DNS servers by flooding them with a lot of requests. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform a DNS zone transfer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Dig
B. NSLookup
C. DSniff
D. Host

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 219
Which of the following security models deal only with integrity?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Biba
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Biba-Wilson
D. Clark-Wilson
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 220
In which of the following IDS evasion attacks does an attacker send a data packet such that IDS accepts the data packet but the host computer rejects it?
A. Fragmentation overlap attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Fragmentation overwrite attack
D. Insertion attack

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 221
Which of the following services does Internet Information Server (IIS) provide along with HTTP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. SMTP
B. FTP C.PPTP D.NNTP
Answer: A,B,D QUESTION NO: 222

Which of the following are the responsibilities of a custodian with regard to data in an information classification program?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data
B. Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary
C. Controlling access, adding and removing privileges for individual users
D. Determining what level of classification the information requires
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 223
Which of the following statements about Microsoft hotfix are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is the term used by Microsoft for major service pack releases.
B. It is generally related to security problems.
C. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack releases.
D. It is generally related to the problems of a Web server’s performance.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 224
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He notices that UDP port 137 of the We-are-secure server is open. Assuming that the Network Administrator of We-are-secure Inc. has not changed the default port values of the services, which of the following services is running on UDP port 137?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. TELNET

D. NetBIOS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 225
Which of the following tools is used for breaking digital watermark?
A. TRACERT
B. Trin00
C. Fpipe
D. 2Mosaic
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 226
Which of the following are used to suppress electrical and computer fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Halon
B. Soda acid
C. CO2
D. Water
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 227
Which of the following are the major tasks of risk management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Building Risk free systems
B. Assuring the integrity of organizational data
C. Risk control
D. Risk identification

Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 228
Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
A. SRV
B. CNAME
C. MX
D. SOA
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 229
Which of the following groups represents the most likely source of an asset loss through the inappropriate use of computers?
A. Employees
B. Hackers
C. Visitors
D. Customers
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 230
Which of the following types of coaxial cable is used for cable TV and cable modems?
A. RG-62
B. RG-59
C. RG-8
D. RG-58
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 231
Which of the following is the process of finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms and obtaining the plaintext or key from the ciphertext?
A. Cryptanalysis
B. Kerberos
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptography
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 232
Which of the following is used by the Diffie-Hellman encryption algorithm?
A. Password
B. Access control entry
C. Key exchange
D. Access control list
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 233
Which of the following provides secure online payment services?
A. CA
B. IEEE
C. ACH
D. ICSA
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 234
John works as an Ethical Hacker for PassGuide Inc. He wants to find out the ports that are open in PassGuide’s server using a port scanner. However, he does not want to establish a full TCP connection. Which of the following scanning techniques will he use to accomplish this task?

A. TCP SYN
B. TCP SYN/ACK
C. TCP FIN
D. Xmas tree
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 235
Which of the following statements about the Instant messaging programs are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Most of the programs have no encryption facility.
B. They allow effective and efficient communication and immediate receipt of reply.
C. They provide secure password management.
D. They can bypass corporate firewalls.

Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 236
Which of the following tools is used to flood the local network with random MAC addresses?
A. NETSH
B. NMAP
C. Port scanner
D. Macof
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 237
Mark works as a Webmaster for Infonet Inc. He sets up an e-commerce site. He wants to accept online payments through credit cards on this site. He wants the credit card numbers to be encrypted. What will Mark do to accomplish the task?

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No : 20
Several members of the development team work in a different time zone from the rest of the team. Which IBM Rational CLM feature keeps these team members informed of decisions made on requirements despite the geographic barriers?
A. online reviews and approvals of requirements
B. work items listed by priority and rank
C. clickable links and rich hovers
D. work items linked to requirements with threaded discussions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 21
Which best practice helps Agile teams identify areas of improvement for the next project?
A. online reviews
B. process discussions
C. evaluations
D. retrospectives
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 22
How many other vendors received the same strong positive ranking in Gartner 2010 market Scope for Application Lifecycle Management report?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 23
A test team leader needs quick access to a list of requirements with tests not run. Which IBM Rational CLM feature should the sales specialist highlight?
A. data stores
B. dashboard widgets
C. report templates
D. color coded tags
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 24
What are two reasons that dashboards are effective ways of communicating project information? (Choose two.)
A. They automatically open when data changes.
B. They present data in easy-to-grasp visualizations.
C. They are always up to date with real-time data from the warehouse.
D. They support a wide variety ofview lets.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Question No : 25
Which Rational Team Concert feature allows team members to share change sets together for a particular purpose?
A. streams
B. repositories
C. scrums
D. timelines
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 26
Which type of CLM product download is made available roughly every eight weeks on jazz.net so that customers can follow progress and provide feedback?
A. milestone
B. beta
C. release
D. release candidate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 27
A development team needs to know which defects have yet to be addressed. Which IBM Rational CLM feature should they use?
A. defect wikis
B. rich hovers
C. project snapshots
D. lifecycle queries
Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION 36
What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation::
NAS Implementation – Scale-out NAS
The scale-out NAS implementation pools multiple nodes together in a cluster. A node may consist of either
the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operation as a single entity.

A scale-out NAS provides the capability to scale its resources by simply adding nodes to a clustered NAS architecture . The cluster works as a single NAS device and is managed centrally. Nodes can be added to the cluster, when more performance or more capacity is needed, without causing any downtime. Scale-out NAS provides the flexibility to use many nodes of moderate performance and availability characteristics to produce a total system that has better aggregate performance and availability. It also provides ease of use, low cost, and theoretically unlimited scalability.
Scale-out NAS creates a single file system that runs on all nodes in the cluster. All information is shared among nodes, so the entire file system is accessible by clients connecting to any node in the cluster. Scale-out NAS stripes data across all nodes in a cluster along with mirror or parity protection. As data is sent from clients to the cluster, the data is divided and allocated to different nodes in parallel. When a client sends a request to read a file, the scale-out NAS retrieves the appropriate blocks from multiple nodes, recombines the blocks into a file, and presents the file to the client. As nodes are added, the file system grows dynamically and data is evenly distributed to every node. Each node added to the cluster increases the aggregate storage, memory, CPU, and network capacity. Hence, cluster performance also increases. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 7: Network-Attached Storage (NAS)
QUESTION 37
In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited
B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting
C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:: NAS File Sharing: Windows ACLs Windows supports two types of ACLs: discretionary access control lists (DACLs) and system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL, commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditing is enabled.
In addition to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and DACL are all statically held as attributes of each object. Windows also offers the functionality to inherit permissions, which allows the child objects existing within a parent object to automatically inherit the ACLs of the parent object.
ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identifiers (SIDs). These are automatically generated by a Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though a user may identify his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representation of the true SID, which is used by the underlying operating system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account’s SID rather than the account’s username or group name while granting access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer GUI but can also be configured with CLI commands or other third- party tools.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14: Securing the Storage Infrastructure
QUESTION 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?
A. Near zero RPO
B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitation
D. Faster response time
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:: Synchronous Replication

In synchronous remote replication, writes must be committed to the source and remote replica (or target), prior to acknowledging “write complete” to the host. Additional writes on the source cannot occur until each preceding write has been completed and acknowledged.
This ensures that data is identical on the source and replica at all times. Further, writes are transmitted to the remote site exactly in the order in which they are received at the source.
Therefore, write ordering is maintained. If a source-site failure occurs, synchronous remote replication provides zero or near-zero recovery-point objective (RPO).
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12: Remote Replication
QUESTION 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation::
Intra-array Storage Tiering
The process of storage tiering within a storage array is called intra-array storage tiering. It enables the efficient use of SSD, FC, and SATA drives within an array and provides performance and cost optimization. The goal is to keep the SSDs busy by storing the most frequently accessed data on them, while moving out the less frequently accessed data to the SATA drives. Data movements executed between tiers can be performed at the LUN level or at the sub-LUN level. The performance can be further improved by implementing tiered cache.
Traditionally, storage tiering is operated at the LUN level that moves an entire LUN from one tier of storage to another. This movement includes both active and inactive data in that LUN.
This method does not give effective cost and performance benefits. Today, storage tiering can be implemented at the sub-LUN level. In sub-LUN level tiering, a LUN is broken down into smaller segments and tiered at that level. Movement of data with much finer granularity, for example 8 MB, greatly enhances the value proposition of automated storage tiering. Tiering at the sub-LUN level effectively moves active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 15: Managing the Storage Infrastructure
QUESTION 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:: Fabric Services EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5: Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)

QUESTION 41
Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
A. Persistent Port Disable
B. Port Binding
C. Port Lockdown
D. Persistent Switch Disable

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation::
Securing FC Switch Ports
Apart from zoning and LUN masking, additional security mechanisms, such as port binding, port lockdown,
port lockout, and persistent port disable, can be implemented on switch ports. Port binding: Limits the
devices that can attach to a particular switch port and allows only the corresponding switch port to connect
to a node for fabric access. Port binding mitigates but does not eliminate WWPN spoofing.

Port lockdown and port lockout: Restrict a switch port’s type of initialization. Typical variants of port lockout
ensure that the switch port cannot function as an E-Port and cannot be used to create an ISL, such as a
rogue switch. Some variants ensure that the port role is restricted to only F- Port, E-Port, or a combination
of these.
Persistent port disable: Prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot.

EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14: Securing the Storage Infrastructure

QUESTION 42
What does a block map contain in a file system snapshot?
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot
B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the first time
C. Blocks that have changed since the creation of the snapshot
D. Blocks that have been modified in either the source or the target

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation::
Host-based Replication: File System Snapshot
File system (FS) snapshot is a pointer-based replica that requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS. It uses the Copy on First Write (CoFW) principle to create snapshots.
When a snapshot is created, a bitmap and blockmap are created in the metadata of the Snap FS. The bitmap is used to keep track of blocks that are changed on the production FS after the snap creation. The blockmap is used to indicate the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS . Immediately after the creation of the FS Snapshot, all reads from the snapshot are actually served by reading the production FS. In a CoFW mechanism, if a write I/O is issued to the production FS for the first time after the creation of a snapshot, the I/O is held and the original data of production FS corresponding to that location is moved to the Snap FS. Then, the write is allowed to the production FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Subsequent writes to the same location will not initiate the CoFW activity. To read from the Snap FS, the bitmap is consulted. If the bit is 0, then the read is directed to the production FS. If the bit is 1, then the block address is obtained from the blockmap and the data is read from that address on the snap FS. Read requests from the production FS work as normal. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11: Local Replication

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Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
Juan is uploading multiple batches of user mail files to IBM SmartCloud Notes via FTP. He has already used 100 GB of the allocated space on the FTP server. How much more data can he upload before some of those databases need to be processed to make space for more?
A. None
B. 100 GB
C. 150 GB
D. 500 GB

Answer: C
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following options is a valid reason for an FTP upload to fail validation?
A. The upload timed out.
B. Using an incompatible FTP client
C. A mismatch between the files listed in the manifest and the files uploaded
D. The uploaded data volume not matching the space reserved for the upload

Answer: C
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)
John is creating a request to FTP data to IBM SmartCloud Notes. Which statement is true about the credentials that are used to log into the SmartCloud Notes FTP service for this request?
A. John creates any user ID and password of his choosing.
B. The SmartCloud Notes service automatically generates the user ID, but John provides the password.
C. TheSmartCloud Notes service automatically generates the user ID and password.
D. For a given customer, the same user ID and password are used for all FTP upload requests.

Answer: B
Question No : 36 – (Topic 1)
Which role must be associated with an IBM SmartCloud user account to allow that user to import existing mail files in preparation for user provisioning?
A. Admin Assistant
B. Administrator
C. Data Transfer Manager
D. User

Answer: C
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)
A set of ten users in a batch were selected for data importprocessing but one user failed with an error. After filtering the user list to show only those users in “Error” status, which
best describes the steps that should be performed to try and correct this situation?
A. Open the user entry, review the processing details for that user, return to the list and select the user, then click Restart Selected Users button.
B. Open the user entry, review the processing details for that user, determine if the error condition can and has been resolved, return to the list and select the user, then click Provision Selected Users button.
C. Open the user entry, review the processing details for that user, determine if the error condition can and has been resolved, return to the list and select the user, then click Restart Selected Users button.
D. Select the user in the list then click Restart Selected Users button.

Answer: C
Question No : 38 – (Topic 1)
Within the User Provisioning with Mail File Transfer administration user interface, the user clicks on a Control Number to access thedetails of the users in that batch. After using the status selector function to filter those users who are ready for import, the list of users is presented. Which best describes the combinations of users that can be selected for import?
A. Only one user can be selected at a time and their associated database must be imported separately.
B. All users in the list must be selected at the same time and all databases are imported together.
C. No more than 10 users can be selected at any time and their associated databases are imported together.
D. Some or all users visible in the list can be selected and the associated databases imported together.

Answer: D
Question No : 39 – (Topic 1)
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the virus scanning applied toa user’s mail file?
A. Virus scanning is carried out only on the Staging Server.
B. No virus scanning is carried out.
C. A virus scan is carried out after the Data Transfer Manager clicks the Import Selected Users button.
D. A virus scan is carried out after the administrator selects the user and clicks the Provision Selected Users button.

Answer: C
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)
When a set of users are selected together for provisioning, which best describes what happens prior to them being submitted for provisioning?
A. All of the selected users have the same template and subscription selected, but a separate temporary password is entered for each user.
B. All of the selected users have the same temporary password and subscription selected, but a separate template isselected for each user.
C. All of the selected users have the same template, subscription and temporary password selected.
D. Each of the selected users has an individually selected template, subscription and temporary password.

Answer: C
Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Once the Control Document is created, within how long must the users be provisioned before they are automatically canceled?
A. 90 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 10 days

Answer: B
Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
If a user is currently using an on-premises IBM Lotus Traveler server, what must be done before the end user can provision their device for Lotus Traveler in IBM SmartCloud Notes?
A. Logging must be set up on the user’s mobile device.
B. The user’s SmartCloud Notes mailbox must be synchronized with their on-premises mailbox.
C. The user’s account must be removed from the on-premises Lotus Traveler server.
D. The default security policies for devices for Lotus Traveler for the SmartCloud Notes service must be customized.

Answer: C
Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
Ahmed accesses his mail exclusively using a web browser. His mail file was transferred to IBM SmartCloud Notes. New email messages arrived in his on-premises mail file while the replica was in transit. How does Ahmed see these email messages?
A. He cannot. Maildelivered in this period remains in the on-premises replica.
B. Ahmed’s administrator must download config.nsf on his behalf and complete catch-up replication.
C. The Onboarding Transition Tool (OTT) completes replication for him.
D. His on-premises mail server replicates directly with the SmartCloud Notes server. He does note need to take action.

Answer: C
Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
Mary uses a web browser and has a bookmark to access her mail directly. How might she reconfigure her browser to access her mail afterprovisioning within IBM SmartCloud Notes?
A. She could manually update the bookmark to point to the service login page.
B. She must use an IBM Lotus Notes client to run config.nsf.
C. She must run the web-based configuration tool.
D. Her browser is reconfigured automatically when she first logs in to SmartCloud Notes.
Answer: A

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